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    UPSC Prelims 2026 Question Paper (GS Paper I) with Answers

    All 99 questions of the 2026 Civil Services Preliminary Examination, General Studies Paper I, in the official order. Each question has the answer from UPSC’s provisional key and an explanation; open “Answer and explanation” after you try it yourself.

    Answers as per UPSC's provisional answer key (May 2026); the final key is awaited.

    Attempt Prelims 2026 as a timed test

    Questions by subject in 2026

    1. Question 1 · Art and Culture · Dance and Music

      Which one of the following Carnatic music ragas is similar to Raga Bilawal in Hindustani music?

      1. (a) Nat Bhairavi
      2. (b) Kamavardhini
      3. (c) Hanumatodi
      4. (d) Dheera Shankarabharanam
      Answer and explanation

      Answer: (d) Dheera Shankarabharanam

      Hindustani Bilawal thaat uses all seven pure (shuddha) notes and is the equivalent of the Western major scale. Its Carnatic counterpart is Dheera Shankarabharanam, the 29th melakarta, which has the same set of notes (S R2 G3 M1 P D2 N3). Nat Bhairavi corresponds to Asavari thaat, Hanumatodi to Bhairavi thaat and Kamavardhini (Pantuvarali) to Purvi thaat.

      Read the notes: Performing Arts

    2. Question 2 · Modern Indian History · Economic Impact of British Rule

      The artificially fixed rupee-sterling exchange rate prescribed by the Hilton-Young Commission (1926) was adopted by the British Government for which one of the following reasons?

      1. (a) Aiding the flow of remittances from India and maintaining India's creditworthiness
      2. (b) Providing support to Indian importers
      3. (c) Encouraging export of cotton produce from India
      4. (d) Preventing depreciation of the Rupee in terms of gold
      Answer and explanation

      Answer: (a) Aiding the flow of remittances from India and maintaining India's creditworthiness

      The Hilton-Young Commission (Royal Commission on Indian Currency and Finance) fixed the rupee at 1s 6d instead of the pre-war 1s 4d. A higher rupee meant that fewer rupees were needed to pay the 'Home Charges', pensions, interest and other remittances that India sent to Britain, and it protected India's ability to service its sterling debt. Indian business, led by Purshottamdas Thakurdas, opposed it because the overvalued rupee hurt Indian exporters and producers while making British imports cheaper. It was not meant to help Indian importers or cotton exports, and it was a sterling rate, not a measure against depreciation in terms of gold.

      Read the notes: British Government & Economic Policies (1757–1857)

    3. Question 3 · Ancient History · Buddhism, Jainism and the Mahajanapadas

      Consider the following statements :

      I. Pali texts contain the first definite references to coins, e.g., kahapana, nikkha, kamsa, and kakanika.

      II. The literary evidence from Pali texts is corroborated by archaeological evidence of punch-marked coins from many sites, most of them made of silver.

      The above statements have been associated with which of the following?

      1. Emergence of urban life
      2. Transition to money economy

      Select the answer using the code given below :

      1. (a) 1 only
      2. (b) 2 only
      3. (c) Both 1 and 2
      4. (d) Neither 1 nor 2
      Answer and explanation

      Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

      Both. Pali Buddhist texts give the first clear literary references to coins such as kahapana (karshapana), nikkha, kamsa and kakanika, and the many silver punch-marked coins found across north India confirm them. Together they show that money had become a regular medium of exchange around the 6th–4th centuries BCE, the age of the 'second urbanisation', when trade, crafts and cities (Rajagriha, Shravasti, Kaushambi and others) grew. Coins are therefore evidence of both the transition to a money economy and the emergence of urban life.

      Read the notes: Mauryan Empire

    4. Question 4 · Art and Culture · Architecture

      Which of the following temples has/have a Nagara-style shikhara?

      1. Malegitti Shivalaya, Badami
      2. Huchimalligudi Temple, Aihole
      3. Dashavatara Temple, Deogarh
      4. Virupaksha Temple, Pattadakal

      Select the answer using the code given below :

      1. (a) 1 and 2
      2. (b) 2 and 3
      3. (c) 3 only
      4. (d) 3 and 4
      Answer and explanation

      Answer: (b) 2 and 3

      The Dashavatara Temple at Deogarh (Gupta period, c. 6th century) is one of the earliest temples with a Nagara (curvilinear) shikhara, and the Huchimalligudi Temple at Aihole (early Chalukya) has an early rekha-nagara superstructure over its sanctum. The Malegitti Shivalaya at Badami and the Virupaksha Temple at Pattadakal are classic Dravida-style vimanas with stepped, pyramidal towers. Pattadakal has both Nagara and Dravida temples, but Virupaksha belongs to the Dravida group.

      Read the notes: Architecture and Sculpture

    5. Question 5 · Ancient History · Buddhism, Jainism and the Mahajanapadas

      Among the four main forms of existence of life recognized in Jainism, which one of the following is not included?

      1. (a) Deva (gods)
      2. (b) Yaksha (demi-gods)
      3. (c) Manushya (humans)
      4. (d) Tiryancha (animals and plants)
      Answer and explanation

      Answer: (b) Yaksha (demi-gods)

      Jainism recognises four gatis (states of existence) through which a soul transmigrates: Deva (heavenly beings), Manushya (humans), Tiryancha (animals, plants and other lower beings) and Naraki (hell beings). Yakshas (demi-gods) are not a separate gati; in Jain cosmology they are a class of lesser divine beings (vyantara devas) within the Deva category, and in art they appear as attendant deities of the Tirthankaras.

      Read the notes: Buddhism and Jainism

    6. Question 6 · Art and Culture · Sculpture and Painting

      The Hallisalasya painting in the Bagh Caves represents :

      1. (a) A joyous folk dance
      2. (b) Buddha in a meditative pose
      3. (c) The depiction of Shiva and Parvati on Kailasha
      4. (d) Samudramanthan (Churning of the Ocean)
      Answer and explanation

      Answer: (a) A joyous folk dance

      Hallisaka (hallisalasya) was a circular group dance. In the Bagh Caves (Madhya Pradesh, c. 5th–6th century CE, contemporary with Ajanta) the famous painting in Cave 4 shows a male dancer surrounded by women musicians and dancers in a lively, joyous performance, a rare secular scene in Buddhist cave art. It does not depict the Buddha in meditation, Shiva-Parvati on Kailasha (a theme of Ellora sculpture) or the churning of the ocean.

      Read the notes: Indian Painting

    7. Question 7 · Ancient History · Post-Gupta Period

      Consider the following statements relating to the use of the place-value system in India :

      1. The earliest epigraphic use of the place-value system in India is found in the Mankani plates from Gujarat (AD 595 – 596).
      2. In the ninth century, place-values become general in inscriptions all over India.
      3. The place-values have been found in Sanskrit inscriptions in South-east Asia as early as the seventh century.

      Which of the statements given above are correct?

      1. (a) 1 and 2 only
      2. (b) 1 and 3 only
      3. (c) 2 and 3 only
      4. (d) 1, 2 and 3
      Answer and explanation

      Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3

      All three statements follow the standard account of Indian numerals (as summarised by Upinder Singh). The earliest epigraphic use of the decimal place-value system in India is in a copper-plate grant from Mankani in Gujarat dated Kalachuri era 346 (AD 595–596). By the 9th century place-value numerals had become general in inscriptions across India, and Sanskrit inscriptions of South-east Asia (Cambodia, Sumatra and Bangka) use place-value numerals as early as the late 7th century. Note: this question is among eight challenged before the CAT in 2026; the answer here follows UPSC's key.

      Read the notes: Gupta Period

    8. Question 8 · Ancient History · Harappan and Vedic Age

      Consider the following statements about the archaeological findings in Harappan towns :

      I. There is wide occurrence of spindle-whorls in the houses but absence of spinning wheels.

      II. Weights and measurement scales, complete with graduations have been discovered.

      III. There are houses built in large part with baked bricks, around relatively spacious courtyards, with their own wells, bathing platforms, and large rooms.

      Which of the following inferences can be drawn from the above statements?

      1. Statement I suggests that spinning was a laborious activity done at home.
      2. Statement II suggests the extent of the scientific knowledge that the Harappans possessed.
      3. Statement III suggests the emergence of a common property system.

      Select the answer using the code given below :

      1. (a) 1 and 2 only
      2. (b) 2 and 3 only
      3. (c) 1 and 3 only
      4. (d) 1, 2 and 3
      Answer and explanation

      Answer: (a) 1 and 2 only

      Spindle-whorls in many houses but no spinning wheels show that thread was spun by hand at home, a slow and laborious task, so inference 1 holds. Standardised cubical chert weights (binary, then decimal) and graduated scales such as the shell scale from Mohenjodaro and the ivory scale from Lothal show considerable practical mathematics and measurement, so inference 2 holds. Large baked-brick houses around courtyards, with private wells and bathing platforms, point to private ownership and social differentiation rather than a common property system, so inference 3 does not follow.

      Read the notes: Indus Valley Civilization

    9. Question 9 · Modern Indian History · Gandhian Era and Independence (1919–1947)

      Which one of the following statements about the Eka Movement and Bardoli Satyagraha is correct?

      1. (a) The Eka Movement was throughout supported and organized by the Congress while Bardoli Satyagraha was initially independent of Congress influence and was only in the last stages supported by the Congress.
      2. (b) The Eka Movement was provided leadership by the taluqdars of Awadh, whereas the Bardoli Satyagraha was a movement of the landless labourers.
      3. (c) The Bardoli Satyagraha was a campaign against the enhancement of land revenue, while the Eka Movement was a protest against excessive extraction of rents.
      4. (d) The Eka Movement was located in the Varanasi and Mirzapur districts of the present-day U.P., while the Bardoli Satyagraha took place in Saurashtra.
      Answer and explanation

      Answer: (c) The Bardoli Satyagraha was a campaign against the enhancement of land revenue, while the Eka Movement was a protest against excessive extraction of rents.

      Bardoli Satyagraha (1928, Surat district, Gujarat) was a no-revenue campaign led by Vallabhbhai Patel against a 22% (originally about 30%) enhancement of land revenue. The Eka (unity) Movement of 1921–22 arose in the Hardoi, Bahraich and Sitapur districts of Awadh against high rents (often 50% above the recorded rent), oppression by thikedars and illegal exactions. Eka began with Congress/Khilafat support but soon came under local low-caste leaders like Madari Pasi and moved away from Congress; it was a movement of tenants against taluqdars, not led by them. Bardoli was a movement of peasant proprietors in Gujarat, not in Saurashtra.

      Read the notes: People’s Resistance before 1857

    10. Question 10 · Ancient History · Harappan and Vedic Age

      Consider the following statements about the Rigvedic period :

      I. Irrigation from wells allowed agriculture to expand away from flood plains and strips on river margins into the present Punjab and Haryana plains having underground water levels reasonably close to the surface.

      II. Draught-animal power was employed to draw up water out of the wells.

      Which of the following information support/supports the above statements?

      1. There is evidence in the Rigveda of the use of ashma chakra (stone pulley wheel) and ahava (strapped wooden pails) to draw up water.
      2. Mention has been made in the Rigveda of the use of implements like parashu/kulisha (axe) and datra/sreni (sickle).
      3. There is a history of the use of ox, even before the Rigveda, for ploughing the land and pulling the carts.

      Select the answer using the code given below :

      1. (a) 1 and 2 only
      2. (b) 1, 2 and 3
      3. (c) 1 and 3 only
      4. (d) 3 only
      Answer and explanation

      Answer: (c) 1 and 3 only

      The two statements are about wells and the use of animal power to lift water. The Rigveda refers to wells (avata) from which water was drawn with a stone pulley-wheel (ashma-chakra) and strapped wooden buckets (ahava), which directly supports both statements. The long history of the ox, used for ploughing and pulling carts even before the Rigvedic period (Harappan terracotta ploughs and bullock-cart models), supports the use of draught-animal power at wells. Information 2, on axes and sickles, concerns clearing land and harvesting, not irrigation from wells, so it does not support the statements.

      Read the notes: Vedic Age

    11. Question 11 · Ancient History · Sources and Archaeology

      Consider the following assertion :

      In the Pleistocene period either the Yamuna once flowed into the Indus, or the Sutlej flowed into the Yamuna and one major tributary of either had shifted from the Ganga to the Indus or vice versa.

      Which of the following is/are the basis of the above assertion?

      1. The Nadi-Sukta of the Rigveda
      2. The explorations of the Sutlej and the Yamuna by Robert Bruce Foote
      3. The presence of the same species of dolphins in both the Indus and the Ganga river systems

      Select the answer using the code given below :

      1. (a) 1 only
      2. (b) 2 only
      3. (c) 1 and 2
      4. (d) 3
      Answer and explanation

      Answer: (d) 3

      UPSC's key treats only item 3 as the basis. The Ganges river dolphin and the Indus river dolphin are so closely related that they were long treated as one species (Platanista gangetica); their presence in both the Indus and Ganga systems, which are not connected today, is taken as evidence that in the Pleistocene the two systems were once linked through a shift of the Yamuna or Sutlej (or a major tributary). The Nadi-Sukta of the Rigveda only lists rivers in their Vedic-age order and cannot speak about the Pleistocene, and Robert Bruce Foote was a geologist-archaeologist of south Indian prehistory, not an explorer of the Sutlej and Yamuna. Note: this question was challenged before the CAT in 2026.

      Read the notes: Vedic Age

    12. Question 12 · Art and Culture · Sculpture and Painting

      What does an empty seat represent in early Buddhist iconography?

      1. (a) The meditation of the Buddha
      2. (b) The Buddha's First Sermon
      3. (c) The Buddha's Mahaparinibbana
      4. (d) The Buddha's Mahabhinishkramana
      Answer and explanation

      Answer: (a) The meditation of the Buddha

      In early (aniconic) Buddhist art of Bharhut, Sanchi and Amaravati the Buddha was not shown in human form; events of his life were indicated by symbols. As the NCERT text on Sanchi explains, an empty seat was meant to indicate the meditation of the Buddha (his seat of enlightenment under the Bodhi tree), the wheel stood for the First Sermon at Sarnath, the stupa for the Mahaparinibbana, and a riderless horse for the Mahabhinishkramana (great departure).

      Read the notes: Literature and Heritage

    13. Question 13 · Ancient History · Harappan and Vedic Age

      Which of the following pairs of ancient and modern names of rivers is/are correctly matched?

      1. Vitasta : Chenab
      2. Asikni : Jhelum
      3. Parushni : Ravi
      4. Yavyavati : Beas

      Select the answer using the code given below :

      1. (a) 1 and 2
      2. (b) 3 and 4
      3. (c) 3 only
      4. (d) 4 only
      Answer and explanation

      Answer: (c) 3 only

      The Rigvedic names of the Punjab rivers are: Vitasta = Jhelum, Asikni = Chenab, Parushni = Ravi, Vipas = Beas and Shutudri = Sutlej. So pairs 1 and 2 are swapped and only pair 3 is correct. Yavyavati is a Rigvedic river usually identified with the Zhob in the north-west (present Pakistan), not the Beas.

      Read the notes: Vedic Age

    14. Question 14 · Art and Culture · Architecture

      Which of the following statements on the Amaravati Stupa and its relief sculpture is/are correct?

      1. It was located in the lower Krishna valley.
      2. In India, it was next only to the Sanchi Stupa in size.
      3. The Amaravati school of sculpture made a lasting impact on the later South Indian sculpture, and its products were carried to Sri Lanka and South-east Asia.

      Select the answer using the code given below :

      1. (a) 1 only
      2. (b) 1 and 3 only
      3. (c) 2 and 3 only
      4. (d) 1, 2 and 3
      Answer and explanation

      Answer: (b) 1 and 3 only

      Amaravati (Guntur district, Andhra Pradesh) lies in the lower Krishna valley, and its limestone reliefs (c. 2nd century BCE–3rd century CE, Satavahana and Ikshvaku periods) form the Amaravati school. Its narrative style, slender figures and lively compositions influenced later sculpture of south India, and Amaravati-style images and reliefs travelled to Sri Lanka and South-east Asia. Statement 2 is not correct: the Amaravati stupa was itself one of the largest stupas of ancient India and is not described as 'next only to Sanchi' in size.

      Read the notes: Architecture and Sculpture

    15. Question 15 · Ancient History · Sangam Age and Early South India

      Which of the following pairs of the king and his dynasty in early historical Tamilakam is/are not correctly matched?

      1. Senguttuvan : Chera
      2. Udiyanjeral : Chola
      3. Nedunjeliyan : Pandya

      Select the answer using the code given below :

      1. (a) 1 and 2
      2. (b) 2 only
      3. (c) 1 and 3
      4. (d) 3 only
      Answer and explanation

      Answer: (b) 2 only

      Senguttuvan (the 'Red Chera'), hero of the Silappadikaram legend who brought stone from the Himalayas for the Kannagi (Pattini) temple, was a Chera king, so pair 1 is correct. Nedunjeliyan, victor of the battle of Talaiyalanganam, was a Pandya king, so pair 3 is correct. Udiyanjeral (Udiyan Cheralathan), praised in the Padirruppattu as the earliest known Chera ruler, was a Chera, not a Chola, so only pair 2 is not correctly matched.

      Read the notes: Sangam Age

    16. Question 16 · Modern Indian History · Gandhian Era and Independence (1919–1947)

      Which of the following factors contributed to the formation of the Forward Bloc by Subhas Chandra Bose in 1939?

      1. Bose failed to win the confidence of Mahatma Gandhi.
      2. The Congress Left was disunited and failed to support Bose.
      3. The Communists did not support Bose in his endeavours.
      4. The supporters of M.N. Roy and socialist leaders like Jayaprakash Narayan preferred Congress unity to supporting Bose.

      Select the answer using the code given below :

      1. (a) 1, 2 and 3
      2. (b) 1, 2 and 4
      3. (c) 1, 3 and 4
      4. (d) 2 and 4 only
      Answer and explanation

      Answer: (b) 1, 2 and 4

      After Bose was re-elected Congress President at Tripuri (1939) defeating Gandhi's nominee Pattabhi Sitaramayya, Gandhi and the Working Committee members withheld cooperation and Bose could not win Gandhi's confidence (1). The Congress Left proved disunited: the Congress Socialists under Jayaprakash Narayan and the Royists chose to stay neutral and preferred Congress unity under Gandhi to backing Bose (2 and 4). Isolated, Bose resigned and formed the Forward Bloc in May 1939. UPSC's key (b) does not count statement 3 as a factor.

      Read the notes: Period from 1935 to 1942

    17. Question 17 · Modern Indian History · Revolts, Tribal and Peasant Movements

      Consider the following statements regarding the British policy in Awadh immediately after its annexation in 1856 :

      1. The taluqdars were dispossessed of their estates but allowed to retain their arms and forts.
      2. A Summary Revenue Settlement was made in 1856 assuming that the taluqdars were outsiders.
      3. The British believed in taking revenue directly from the peasants by removing the taluqdars.

      Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

      1. (a) 2 and 3 only
      2. (b) 1 and 3 only
      3. (c) 1, 2 and 3
      4. (d) 2 only
      Answer and explanation

      Answer: (a) 2 and 3 only

      After annexing Awadh in February 1856, the British made a Summary Settlement of land revenue in 1856 that treated the taluqdars as outsiders or usurpers with no real right to the land and settled directly with the village proprietors and cultivators, removing the taluqdars wherever possible (2 and 3). The taluqdars were not allowed to keep their power base: they were disarmed and their forts were demolished, and many lost large parts of their estates. This is why the dispossessed taluqdars joined the revolt of 1857 in large numbers.

      Read the notes: Expansion and Consolidation of British Power

    18. Question 18 · Modern Indian History · British Administration, Constitutional Acts and Education

      Consider the following assertion :

      The genesis of political alliances based on community lay in the very nature of the Montague-Chelmsford Reforms, 1919.

      Which of the following statements support/supports the above assertion?

      1. Reforms retained and extended the principle of separate electorates.
      2. Separate electorates were supposed to counter Indian nationalism, which was growing stronger.
      3. Deprived classes rallied around the favours inherent in separate electorates.

      Select the answer using the code given below :

      1. (a) 1 only
      2. (b) 2 and 3 only
      3. (c) 1 and 2 only
      4. (d) 1, 2 and 3
      Answer and explanation

      Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3

      The Montagu-Chelmsford Reforms (Government of India Act, 1919) retained separate electorates for Muslims and extended them to Sikhs, Indian Christians, Anglo-Indians and Europeans (1). The British saw communal representation as a way to divide and counter the growing national movement (2). Because seats and favours were distributed by community, various groups, including the depressed classes who were given nominated representation, organised to claim the benefits attached to separate representation (3). All three statements therefore explain why political alliances began to form along community lines.

      Read the notes: India’s Response to First World War and Home Rule Movement

    19. Question 19 · Art and Culture · Dance and Music

      Pandit Mallikarjun Mansur, the famous classical singer from Karnataka, represented the :

      1. (a) Agra Gharana
      2. (b) Gwalior Gharana
      3. (c) Patiala Gharana
      4. (d) Jaipur-Atrauli Gharana
      Answer and explanation

      Answer: (d) Jaipur-Atrauli Gharana

      Pandit Mallikarjun Mansur (1910–1992) of Dharwad, Karnataka, was one of the foremost Khayal singers of the Jaipur-Atrauli gharana founded by Alladiya Khan; he trained under Manji Khan and Burji Khan, sons of Alladiya Khan, and was known for rare and complex ragas. He received the Padma Vibhushan. Dharwad's other great vocalists, Bhimsen Joshi and Gangubai Hangal, belonged to the Kirana gharana.

      Read the notes: Performing Arts

    20. Question 20 · Ancient History · Harappan and Vedic Age

      In which one among the following texts does the term kshetra-patni ('mistress of the field') originate?

      1. (a) Rigveda
      2. (b) Atharvaveda
      3. (c) Ashtadhyayi
      4. (d) Arthashastra
      Answer and explanation

      Answer: (b) Atharvaveda

      UPSC's key gives the Atharvaveda. The Atharvaveda contains many agricultural charms and personifies the field; the feminine 'kshetra-patni', the mistress or goddess of the field, is traced to it. The Rigveda (Book IV) praises Kshetrapati, the masculine 'lord of the field', but not a 'mistress of the field'. The Ashtadhyayi is Panini's grammar and the Arthashastra is Kautilya's treatise on statecraft; neither is the source of the term.

      Read the notes: Vedic Age

    21. Question 21 · Environment and Ecology · Climate Change

      Consider the following statements with reference to India's response to climate change :

      I. India's Long-Term Low Emission Development Strategy (LT-LEDS) is a crucial tool for achieving net-zero emissions by 2070.

      II. India's 4th Biennial Update Report (BUR-4) submitted in December, 2024 recorded around 8% decrease in Greenhouse gas emissions in 2020 over 2019.

      III. Climate-resilient development necessarily depends on quick and short-term achievement of emission reduction targets.

      Which of the following relationships among the above statements is/are correct?

      1. Statement I is empirically supported by statement II.
      2. Statement III contradicts the approach implicit in statement I.
      3. Statement I and statement III together establish the premise of long-term sustainability.

      Select the answer using the code given below :

      1. (a) 1 only
      2. (b) 1 and 2
      3. (c) 2 and 3
      4. (d) 3 only
      Answer and explanation

      Answer: (b) 1 and 2

      India's LT-LEDS, submitted to the UNFCCC at COP27 (2022), sets out the low-carbon development path towards net-zero by 2070. India's Fourth Biennial Update Report (BUR-4, December 2024) reported that total GHG emissions (excluding LULUCF) in 2020 fell by about 7.93% compared with 2019, which empirically supports the trajectory in statement I (relationship 1 is correct). Statement III is wrong in itself: climate-resilient development is a long-term, gradual process and does not depend on quick, short-term targets; this contradicts the long-term approach of LT-LEDS (relationship 2 is correct), so I and III cannot together establish long-term sustainability (relationship 3 is wrong).

      Read the notes: Contemporary Environmental Issues

    22. Question 22 · Environment and Ecology · Species in News

      With respect to the Western Hoolock Gibbons, which of the following statements is/are correct?

      1. A Sanctuary in North-east India is home to this ape species listed as Endangered in the International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN) Red List.
      2. They have specialized brachiation and can easily swing between trees.
      3. They possess a strong and heavy build like gorillas, yet are remarkably agile tree climbers.

      Select the answer using the code given below :

      1. (a) 1 only
      2. (b) 1 and 2
      3. (c) 2 and 3
      4. (d) 3 only
      Answer and explanation

      Answer: (b) 1 and 2

      The western hoolock gibbon (Hoolock hoolock), India's only ape, is listed as Endangered on the IUCN Red List; the Hollongapar Gibbon Sanctuary in Jorhat, Assam is named after it (1). Like all gibbons it moves by brachiation, swinging arm-over-arm through the canopy with long arms and hook-like hands (2). Gibbons are 'lesser apes': small and light (about 6–9 kg), not heavily built like gorillas (3 is wrong).

      Read the notes: Biodiversity & Conservation

    23. Question 23 · Environment and Ecology · Ecology Concepts

      Which of the following best explain(s) the rationale for protecting mangrove ecosystems in the context of climate resilience?

      1. Mangroves reduce tidal energy and store freshwater, making them ideal sites for paddy cultivation in saline estuarine belts.
      2. Their salt-sensitive roots filter seawater, making mangroves key to converting coastal land into freshwater aquaculture zones.
      3. By withstanding tidal surges and offering biomass resources, mangroves function both as natural bio-shields and livelihood bases for rural communities.

      Select the answer using the code given below :

      1. (a) 1 only
      2. (b) 1 and 2
      3. (c) 2 and 3
      4. (d) 3 only
      Answer and explanation

      Answer: (d) 3 only

      Mangroves dissipate wave and storm-surge energy, stabilise shorelines and act as natural bio-shields (as seen in the 1999 Odisha super cyclone and the 2004 tsunami); they also provide fish nurseries, honey, fuelwood, fodder and other biomass that support coastal livelihoods (3). Statements 1 and 2 are wrong: mangroves are salt-tolerant (halophytic) plants of saline intertidal zones; they do not store freshwater for paddy, and their roots do not turn seawater into freshwater for aquaculture. Converting mangrove land into paddy fields or aquaculture ponds is in fact a major cause of mangrove loss.

      Read the notes: Indian Legislation, Policies & Missions

    24. Question 24 · Economy · Infrastructure

      In what way(s) does the Vizhinjam International Seaport represent a structural shift in India's maritime trade and logistics policy?

      1. By functioning exclusively as a domestic cargo hub to reduce reliance on coastal shipping and eliminate the need for foreign collaborations.
      2. By focusing primarily on passenger cruise tourism and heritage shipping to increase Kerala's profile as a maritime heritage destination.
      3. By leveraging its natural deep draft and strategic location to reduce dependence on foreign trans-shipment ports, enhance revenue retention, and reposition India in regional maritime trade.

      Select the answer using the code given below :

      1. (a) 1 only
      2. (b) 1 and 2
      3. (c) 2 and 3
      4. (d) 3 only
      Answer and explanation

      Answer: (d) 3 only

      Vizhinjam International Seaport near Thiruvananthapuram, Kerala, commissioned in 2025, is India's first dedicated deep-water container trans-shipment port. Its natural depth of about 18–20 m close to the coast and its position only about 10 nautical miles from the main east–west shipping route let it handle mega container ships. It aims to capture Indian cargo now trans-shipped at Colombo, Singapore and Dubai, saving costs and foreign exchange and keeping port revenue in India (3). It is an international trans-shipment hub built as a PPP with Adani Ports, not an exclusively domestic or cruise-tourism port (1 and 2 are wrong).

      Read the notes: Infrastructure

    25. Question 25 · Geography · Indian Physiography and Drainage

      Identify the river of the Indian sub-continent on the basis of the following information :

      1. It has an antecedent drainage system.
      2. It flows through three countries.
      3. It originates in the Tibetan Plateau and is an important river for irrigation.
      4. It does not form distributaries.

      Select the answer from the following :

      1. (a) Brahmaputra
      2. (b) Indus
      3. (c) Sutlej
      4. (d) Teesta
      Answer and explanation

      Answer: (c) Sutlej

      The Sutlej rises near Lake Rakshastal in the Tibetan Plateau, cuts across the Himalaya through a deep gorge near Shipki La (an antecedent river), and flows through China (Tibet), India and Pakistan. It feeds the Bhakra-Nangal system and the Indira Gandhi Canal, so it is vital for irrigation. It ends by joining the Chenab (Panjnad) and does not form a delta or distributaries. The Indus and the Brahmaputra are also antecedent and cross three countries, but both form deltas with many distributaries; the Teesta rises in Sikkim, not on the Tibetan Plateau.

      Read the notes: Indian Drainage

    26. Question 26 · Geography · Map-based

      Which of the following with reference to Indian States is/are not correct?

      1. Uttar Pradesh shares its boundary with the highest number of other Indian States.
      2. Rajasthan shares the longest international border among all Indian States.
      3. Sikkim is the only State that shares its boundary with just one other Indian State.

      Select the answer using the code given below :

      1. (a) 1 only
      2. (b) 1 and 2
      3. (c) 2 and 3
      4. (d) 3 only
      Answer and explanation

      Answer: (c) 2 and 3

      Statement 1 is correct: Uttar Pradesh touches eight States (Uttarakhand, Himachal Pradesh, Haryana, Rajasthan, Madhya Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, Jharkhand, Bihar) plus Delhi, the highest of any State. Statement 2 is not correct: West Bengal has the longest international border (about 2,217 km with Bangladesh, plus borders with Nepal and Bhutan), while Rajasthan's border with Pakistan is about 1,070 km. Statement 3 is not correct: Sikkim borders only West Bengal, but Meghalaya also borders only one State (Assam), so Sikkim is not the only such State.

      Read the notes: Indian Geography: Introduction and Geology

    27. Question 27 · Environment and Ecology · Species in News

      Which of the following statements with regard to the arrival of Amur Falcons at Doyang Lake in Nagaland each year from Mongolia is/are correct?

      1. It showcases how sustained local conservation efforts can contribute to the arrival and protection of international migratory birds.
      2. It reflects the global success of advanced tracking technologies that guide migratory birds back to their stopover sites.
      3. It confirms that Amur Falcons have adapted to permanent residency in India due to favourable habitat changes.

      Select the answer using the code given below :

      1. (a) 1 only
      2. (b) 1 and 2
      3. (c) 2 and 3
      4. (d) 3 only
      Answer and explanation

      Answer: (a) 1 only

      Amur falcons breed in Mongolia, north-east China and south-east Russia and stop over in very large numbers around Doyang reservoir (Wokha district, Nagaland) every October–November before flying non-stop over the Arabian Sea to southern Africa. Until 2012 thousands were trapped there; community resolutions, awareness drives and patrolling by villages such as Pangti turned former hunters into protectors, which is the lesson in statement 1. Satellite tagging is used only to study their routes; it does not guide the birds (2 is wrong). They are passage migrants that stay a few weeks and do not reside permanently in India (3 is wrong).

      Read the notes: Biodiversity & Conservation

    28. Question 28 · Economy · Agriculture

      Which among the following is/are the objective(s) of the Rainfed Area Development (RAD) initiative under the National Mission for Sustainable Agriculture (NMSA)?

      1. Encouraging monoculture in rainfed areas
      2. Increasing rice cultivation in irrigated regions
      3. Enhancing productivity and minimising climatic risks through Integrated Farming Systems (IFS)

      Select the answer using the code given below :

      1. (a) 1 only
      2. (b) 1 and 2
      3. (c) 2 and 3
      4. (d) 3 only
      Answer and explanation

      Answer: (d) 3 only

      Rainfed Area Development (RAD) is a component of the National Mission for Sustainable Agriculture (NMSA). It promotes an area-based Integrated Farming System approach, combining crops with horticulture, livestock, fisheries, agroforestry and apiculture, together with soil and water conservation, to raise productivity and reduce the risk of crop failure from climate variability (3). It discourages monoculture rather than encouraging it, and it targets rainfed areas, not rice expansion in irrigated regions (1 and 2 are wrong).

      Read the notes: Indian Agriculture

    29. Question 29 · Economy · External Sector

      Which of the following is/are the most significant implication(s) of obtaining Oeko-Tex certification for Eri Silk in the global textile industry?

      1. It allows Indian exporters to compete in high-end markets that prioritise chemical-free products.
      2. It confirms that Eri Silk meets international safety, environmental, and quality standards, enabling its entry into premium eco-conscious markets.

      Select the answer using the code given below :

      1. (a) 1 only
      2. (b) 2 only
      3. (c) Both 1 and 2
      4. (d) Neither 1 nor 2
      Answer and explanation

      Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

      OEKO-TEX certification (for example STANDARD 100) is an international label showing that a textile has been tested for harmful substances and meets safety standards; related OEKO-TEX labels also cover environmentally responsible production. In 2025 Eri silk, the 'peace' or 'ahimsa' silk of Assam and the North-east, obtained OEKO-TEX certification. This assures buyers that the product is free of harmful chemicals and meets international safety, environmental and quality norms, letting Indian exporters compete in premium, eco-conscious markets in Europe, the USA and Japan. Both statements are therefore correct.

    30. Question 30 · Geography · Map-based

      Ships from which of the following countries have to cross the Strait of Hormuz to reach out to the Indian Ocean?

      1. Bahrain
      2. Syria
      3. Qatar
      4. Egypt

      Select the answer using the code given below :

      1. (a) 1 and 2
      2. (b) 1 and 3
      3. (c) 2 and 3
      4. (d) 3 and 4
      Answer and explanation

      Answer: (b) 1 and 3

      The Strait of Hormuz is the only sea outlet of the Persian Gulf to the Gulf of Oman and the Arabian Sea. Bahrain and Qatar lie entirely on the Persian Gulf, so their ships must pass through Hormuz to reach the Indian Ocean. Syria's coast is on the Mediterranean, and Egypt reaches the Indian Ocean through the Suez Canal and the Red Sea (Bab-el-Mandeb), so neither needs Hormuz.

      Read the notes: World Regional Geography and Mapping

    31. Question 31 · Geography · Physical Geography

      Tungurahua Volcano, which was declared a Global Geopark by UNESCO in 2025, is situated in which one among the following countries?

      1. (a) Ecuador
      2. (b) Peru
      3. (c) Bolivia
      4. (d) Colombia
      Answer and explanation

      Answer: (a) Ecuador

      Tungurahua, an active stratovolcano in the Andes of central Ecuador near the town of Baños, gives its name to the Tungurahua Volcano UNESCO Global Geopark, designated in 2025. Ecuador already had the Imbabura Global Geopark. Peru, Bolivia and Colombia are also Andean countries, but Tungurahua is not in any of them.

      Read the notes: Evolution of Earth's Crust, Earthquakes and Volcanoes

    32. Question 32 · Environment and Ecology · Biodiversity and Protected Areas

      With reference to Madhav National Park, which of the following statements is/are correct?

      1. It was declared a Tiger Reserve in India in 2025.
      2. Sakhya Sagar, which is designated as a Ramsar Site, is situated within this National Park.
      3. Its area is shared between Madhya Pradesh and Rajasthan.

      Select the answer using the code given below :

      1. (a) 1 only
      2. (b) 1 and 2
      3. (c) 2 and 3
      4. (d) 3 only
      Answer and explanation

      Answer: (b) 1 and 2

      Madhav National Park in Shivpuri district, Madhya Pradesh, was notified as India's 58th tiger reserve and Madhya Pradesh's ninth in March 2025 (1). Sakhya Sagar lake inside the park was designated a Ramsar site in 2022 (2). The park lies wholly in Madhya Pradesh; it is not shared with Rajasthan (3 is wrong). Tigers reintroduced from other reserves helped its upgrade.

      Read the notes: Biodiversity & Conservation

    33. Question 33 · Geography · Climate and Monsoon

      With reference to the climate of Andaman and Nicobar Islands, which of the following statements is/are correct?

      1. The climate can be defined as a humid, tropical coastal climate.
      2. It receives rainfall from both South-west monsoon and North-east monsoon.
      3. Maximum precipitation is between December and May.

      Select the answer using the code given below :

      1. (a) 1 only
      2. (b) 1 and 2
      3. (c) 2 and 3
      4. (d) 3 only
      Answer and explanation

      Answer: (b) 1 and 2

      Lying close to the equator and surrounded by sea, the Andaman and Nicobar Islands have a hot, humid, tropical maritime (coastal) climate with little seasonal change in temperature (1). They receive rain from the south-west monsoon (May–September) and also from the north-east monsoon and cyclonic disturbances (October–December), giving roughly 3,000 mm a year (2). The wettest months fall between May and December; January to April is the comparatively dry season, so statement 3 is wrong.

      Read the notes: Physiography of India

    34. Question 34 · Geography · Indian Physiography and Drainage

      Which of the following geographical features or phenomena is/are associated with the Peninsular Block of India?

      1. Submergence of parts of the western coast due to tectonic activity
      2. Presence of residual mountain ranges such as the Veliconda hills and Mahendragiri hills
      3. Deep, V-shaped river valleys formed by fast-flowing rivers

      Select the answer using the code given below :

      1. (a) 1 only
      2. (b) 1 and 2
      3. (c) 2 and 3
      4. (d) 3 only
      Answer and explanation

      Answer: (b) 1 and 2

      The Peninsular Block is an old, stable landmass of Archaean rocks. Its western margin was faulted, and parts of the western coast subsided and were submerged, producing a narrow coast and features such as the drowned Konkan and Malabar coasts (1). Long erosion has reduced its old mountains to residual hills such as the Aravalli, Nallamala, Javadi, Veliconda, Palkonda and Mahendragiri hills (2). Deep, V-shaped valleys cut by fast-flowing young rivers are typical of the Himalaya, not of the Peninsula, whose mature rivers flow in broad, shallow valleys (3 is wrong).

      Read the notes: Physiography of India

    35. Question 35 · Economy · Infrastructure

      Consider the following statements with reference to the Sagarmala Programme of the Government of India :

      I. The Sagarmala Programme seeks to achieve port-led economic growth through cost-effective and sustainable coastal infrastructure.

      II. The success of the Sagarmala Programme is reflected in significant growth in coastal and inland waterway shipping, along with improved global port rankings.

      III. Sagarmala 2.0 aims to position India as a global maritime innovation hub aligned with Atmanirbhar Bharat and Viksit Bharat 2047 visions.

      Which of the following relationships among the above statements is/are correct?

      1. Statement II validates the effectiveness of the strategies envisioned in statement I.
      2. Statement III extends the objectives of statement I by embedding them into a future-oriented innovation framework.
      3. Statement I contradicts statement III by focusing only on traditional infrastructure instead of modern innovation.

      Select the answer using the code given below :

      1. (a) 1 only
      2. (b) 1 and 2
      3. (c) 2 and 3
      4. (d) 3 only
      Answer and explanation

      Answer: (b) 1 and 2

      Sagarmala (2015) pursues port-led development by modernising ports, improving port connectivity, building coastal industrial clusters and promoting coastal and inland water transport to cut logistics costs (statement I). Growth in coastal shipping and inland waterway cargo and the better global ranking of Indian ports (for example in the World Bank's Container Port Performance Index) show these strategies working, so II validates I (relationship 1 is correct). Sagarmala 2.0 builds on the same goals and adds shipbuilding, innovation and technology in line with Atmanirbhar Bharat and Viksit Bharat 2047, so III extends I (relationship 2 is correct). I and III are complementary, not contradictory (relationship 3 is wrong).

      Read the notes: Infrastructure

    36. Question 36 · Environment and Ecology · Species in News

      Consider the following statements about Rhynchostylis retusa (Foxtail orchid) :

      1. It is an epiphytic orchid.
      2. The species is endemic to North-east India.
      3. It is the State flower of Arunachal Pradesh and Assam.

      Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

      1. (a) 1 only
      2. (b) 1 and 3
      3. (c) 2 and 3
      4. (d) 3 only
      Answer and explanation

      Answer: (b) 1 and 3

      Rhynchostylis retusa, the foxtail orchid (kopou phool in Assam), grows on the trunks and branches of trees, so it is an epiphytic orchid (1). It is the State flower of Arunachal Pradesh and of Assam, where it is worn in Bihu dances (3). It is not endemic to North-east India: it occurs widely across tropical Asia, from India and Sri Lanka to South-east Asia, China and the Philippines (2 is wrong).

      Read the notes: Biodiversity & Conservation

    37. Question 37 · Art and Culture · Architecture

      Which one of the following statements with regard to the Moidams, built by the Tai-Ahom kingdom and inscribed as a World Heritage Site by UNESCO, is/are correct?

      1. They acted as army fortresses.
      2. They were recreation centres of the Royals and Nobles.
      3. They were burial grounds of the Royals and Nobles.
      4. They were battle drill centres of the Royals and Nobles.

      Select the answer using the code given below :

      1. (a) 1 only
      2. (b) 1 and 3
      3. (c) 3 only
      4. (d) 2 and 4
      Answer and explanation

      Answer: (c) 3 only

      The Moidams of Charaideo, Assam, inscribed as India's 43rd UNESCO World Heritage Site in 2024 (the first cultural site from the North-east), are mound burials of the Tai-Ahom royalty and nobility built over some 600 years. Each moidam is a vaulted chamber covered by an earthen mound, where the dead were buried with goods for the afterlife. They were never army fortresses, recreation centres or battle-drill grounds.

      Read the notes: Heritage, Institutions and Cinema

    38. Question 38 · Environment and Ecology · International Conventions

      At the United Nations Ocean Conference (UNOC) held in June, 2025 in France, the Food and Agricultural Organization (FAO) of the United Nations demonstrated its leading voice on marine and ocean issues, especially on sustainable fisheries and aquaculture for resilient livelihood and "Blue Transformation".

      Which of the following combinations about the "Four Betters" proposed by FAO for "Blue Transformation" is correct?

      1. (a) Better production, better nutrition, better environment and better ocean
      2. (b) Better production, better nutrition, better environment and better life
      3. (c) Better coral reefs, better nutrition, better environment and better life
      4. (d) Better estuaries, better nutrition, better environment and better mangrove vegetation
      Answer and explanation

      Answer: (b) Better production, better nutrition, better environment and better life

      FAO's Strategic Framework 2022–31 aims at the 'Four Betters': better production, better nutrition, a better environment and a better life, leaving no one behind. FAO's Blue Transformation roadmap applies these to aquatic food systems, sustainably expanding aquaculture, managing fisheries effectively and upgrading value chains, and FAO promoted it at the third UN Ocean Conference in Nice, France (June 2025). 'Better ocean', 'better coral reefs', 'better estuaries' and 'better mangrove vegetation' are not part of the Four Betters.

    39. Question 39 · Geography · Map-based

      Which of the following statements with reference to Lake Turkana is/are correct?

      1. It is the largest desert lake in the world.
      2. The lake is situated in South Sudan along the eastern fringe of the Sahara desert.
      3. The lake is listed as a UNESCO World Heritage Site and is also referred to as the 'Jade Sea'.

      Select the answer using the code given below :

      1. (a) 1 only
      2. (b) 1 and 3 only
      3. (c) 2 and 3 only
      4. (d) 1, 2 and 3
      Answer and explanation

      Answer: (b) 1 and 3 only

      Lake Turkana in the Eastern (Gregory) Rift Valley of northern Kenya, with its northern tip in Ethiopia, is the world's largest permanent desert lake and largest alkaline lake (1). It is not in South Sudan and is not on the fringe of the Sahara (2 is wrong). Its striking blue-green colour gives it the name 'Jade Sea', and the Lake Turkana National Parks (Sibiloi, Central Island and South Island) are a UNESCO World Heritage Site, now on the 'in danger' list (3).

      Read the notes: World Regional Geography and Mapping

    40. Question 40 · Environment and Ecology · Climate Change

      Which one of the following is the first Plan Vivo certified Reducing Emissions from Deforestation and Forest Degradation (REDD+) project in India?

      1. (a) Uttarakhand REDD+ project
      2. (b) ICFRE-ICIMOD Transboundary REDD+ project in North-Eastern Himalayas
      3. (c) Khasi Hills Community REDD+ project
      4. (d) Sikkim Mamley Kamrang Community REDD+ project
      Answer and explanation

      Answer: (c) Khasi Hills Community REDD+ project

      The Khasi Hills Community REDD+ Project around Mawphlang in Meghalaya, run by a federation of traditional Khasi governments (hima) with the NGO Community Forestry International, was India's first REDD+ project certified under the Plan Vivo standard (2016); it restores and protects community forests and sells carbon credits whose income goes to the villages. The other options are not the first Plan Vivo certified REDD+ project in India.

      Read the notes: International Conventions & Frameworks

    41. Question 41 · Science and Technology · Biotechnology

      Which of the following statements with regard to genetic medicine is/are correct?

      1. Genetic medicines correct/compensate for the faulty genes responsible for disease.
      2. Engineered viruses and lipid nanoparticles are used as carriers of the genetic medicine.
      3. Genetic medicines alter the entire DNA sequence.

      Select the answer using the code given below :

      1. (a) 1 only
      2. (b) 2 and 3 only
      3. (c) 1 and 2 only
      4. (d) 1, 2 and 3
      Answer and explanation

      Answer: (c) 1 and 2 only

      Genetic medicines (gene therapy, gene editing, mRNA and antisense therapies) act at the level of genes: they replace, repair, silence or supplement a faulty gene, or supply the missing protein's instructions, to treat the disease (1). They are delivered into cells by carriers such as engineered (disarmed) viruses like AAV and lentivirus, or non-viral lipid nanoparticles, as used in mRNA vaccines (2). They target specific genes or sequences; they do not rewrite a person's entire DNA sequence (3 is wrong).

      Read the notes: Biotechnology

    42. Question 42 · Science and Technology · IT and Emerging Tech

      Which of the following statements with regard to Large Language Models (LLMs) used in machine learning is/are correct?

      1. LLMs assign probabilities to the next possible words and then pick the one with the highest probability.
      2. LLMs process data through mathematical optimization to minimise prediction errors.
      3. LLMs produce unbiased outputs.

      Select the answer using the code given below :

      1. (a) 1 only
      2. (b) 1 and 2 only
      3. (c) 2 and 3 only
      4. (d) 1, 2 and 3
      Answer and explanation

      Answer: (b) 1 and 2 only

      An LLM is trained to predict the next token: for each position it computes a probability distribution over possible next words and then selects a word from it (greedy decoding picks the most probable one) (1). Training is an optimisation process in which the model's parameters are adjusted, by gradient descent, to minimise prediction error (loss) on huge text datasets (2). Because they learn from human-written data, LLMs can reproduce social, cultural and other biases; their outputs are not guaranteed to be unbiased (3 is wrong).

      Read the notes: Information Technology

    43. Question 43 · Science and Technology · Defence and Nuclear

      Which of the following statements with regard to stealth technology is/are correct?

      1. Stealth objects have a very small radar cross-section and are coated with Radar Absorbing Material.
      2. Stealth objects can be detected using specific frequencies.
      3. Stealth objects are coated with metamaterials to increase the scattering of electromagnetic radiation.

      Select the answer using the code given below :

      1. (a) 1 only
      2. (b) 2 and 3 only
      3. (c) 1 and 2 only
      4. (d) 1, 2 and 3
      Answer and explanation

      Answer: (c) 1 and 2 only

      Stealth aircraft and ships are shaped to deflect radar energy away from the source and are coated with radar-absorbing materials, giving them a very small radar cross-section (1). Stealth is optimised for particular radar bands (mainly X and other high-frequency bands), so low-frequency (VHF/UHF) radars, passive and multistatic radars and infrared sensors can still detect them (2). Metamaterials are being developed to cloak objects by bending or absorbing electromagnetic waves, i.e. to reduce scattering back to the radar, not to increase it (3 is wrong).

      Read the notes: Defence Technology

    44. Question 44 · Science and Technology · Physics

      Which of the following statements with regard to Black Boxes used in modern aircrafts is/are correct?

      1. They carry a beacon emitting red light pulses to facilitate underwater detection.
      2. They record both the cockpit voice and flight data.
      3. Their memory units are made using either stainless steel or titanium.

      Select the answer using the code given below :

      1. (a) 1 only
      2. (b) 2 and 3 only
      3. (c) 1 and 2 only
      4. (d) 1, 2 and 3
      Answer and explanation

      Answer: (b) 2 and 3 only

      An aircraft's 'black boxes' (painted bright orange) are the Cockpit Voice Recorder and the Flight Data Recorder, often combined in one unit, so they record both cockpit audio and flight parameters (2). Their crash-survivable memory units are encased in heavily insulated stainless steel or titanium housings to withstand impact, fire and deep-sea pressure (3). The underwater locator beacon fitted to them emits ultrasonic acoustic pings (about 37.5 kHz) for about 30–90 days, not red light pulses (1 is wrong).

      Read the notes: Defence Technology

    45. Question 45 · Environment and Ecology · Climate Change

      Which of the following statements with regard to Green Hydrogen is/are correct?

      1. It is decarbonized hydrogen obtained from natural gas reforming combined with carbon capture and storage (CCS).
      2. It is produced using electrolysis of water with electricity generated by renewable energy.
      3. National Green Hydrogen Mission of India aims for abatement of nearly 50 MMT of annual greenhouse gas emissions by 2030.

      Select the answer using the code given below :

      1. (a) 1 only
      2. (b) 2 and 3 only
      3. (c) 2 only
      4. (d) 1, 2 and 3
      Answer and explanation

      Answer: (b) 2 and 3 only

      Green hydrogen is produced by electrolysis of water using electricity from renewable sources such as solar and wind (2). Hydrogen from natural-gas reforming with carbon capture and storage is called 'blue' hydrogen, and without CCS it is 'grey' hydrogen, so statement 1 does not describe green hydrogen. The National Green Hydrogen Mission (2023, outlay ₹19,744 crore) targets 5 MMT of green hydrogen production a year by 2030, about 125 GW of added renewable capacity and abatement of nearly 50 MMT of annual greenhouse gas emissions (3). Note: this question was challenged before the CAT in 2026; the answer follows UPSC's key.

      Read the notes: Indian Legislation, Policies & Missions

    46. Question 46 · Science and Technology · Space

      Consider the following statements with regard to involvement of private entities in India's space programme :

      1. The Indian National Space Promotion and Authorisation Centre (IN-SPACe) is an autonomous agency formed to facilitate participation of private entities.
      2. Agnikul Cosmos launched the world's first flight using 3D-printed rocket engine.
      3. Skyroot Aerospace has developed liquid fuel for GSLV.

      Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

      1. (a) 1 only
      2. (b) 2 and 3 only
      3. (c) 1 and 2 only
      4. (d) 1, 2 and 3
      Answer and explanation

      Answer: (c) 1 and 2 only

      IN-SPACe, set up in 2020 under the Department of Space, is an autonomous single-window agency that promotes, authorises and supervises space activities of non-government entities (1). Chennai-based Agnikul Cosmos launched Agnibaan SOrTeD from Sriharikota in May 2024, the world's first flight of a rocket powered by a single-piece 3D-printed semi-cryogenic engine (2). Skyroot Aerospace builds its own Vikram series of launch vehicles (Vikram-S flew in 2022); it has not developed liquid fuel for ISRO's GSLV (3 is wrong).

      Read the notes: Space Technology

    47. Question 47 · Science and Technology · Defence and Nuclear

      Which of the following statements with regard to drone swarms is/are correct?

      1. They use Terahertz band of frequency to communicate with the command centre.
      2. Individual drones in the swarm can communicate with other drones in the swarm.
      3. GPS Spoofing is a commonly used technique to counter drone swarm attack.

      Select the answer using the code given below :

      1. (a) 1 only
      2. (b) 2 and 3 only
      3. (c) 1 and 2 only
      4. (d) 1, 2 and 3
      Answer and explanation

      Answer: (b) 2 and 3 only

      A drone swarm is a group of drones that coordinate as a networked unit: individual drones exchange data with one another (mesh networking and swarm algorithms) so the swarm can act together even with limited control from the ground (2). Common counter-swarm measures include jamming and GPS spoofing, which feed false navigation signals to mislead or ground the drones, besides lasers, microwaves and guns (3). Swarms communicate over ordinary radio bands (such as 2.4/5.8 GHz and other RF links), not the terahertz band, which is still experimental (1 is wrong).

      Read the notes: Defence Technology

    48. Question 48 · Science and Technology · Biotechnology

      Which of the following statements with regard to GenomeIndia Project is/are correct?

      1. It is a part of the Human Genome Project.
      2. The project is funded by the Department of Biotechnology (DBT), Government of India.
      3. Its primary aim is to build a catalogue of genetic diversity of the Indian population.

      Select the answer using the code given below :

      1. (a) 1 only
      2. (b) 2 and 3 only
      3. (c) 1 and 2 only
      4. (d) 1, 2 and 3
      Answer and explanation

      Answer: (b) 2 and 3 only

      GenomeIndia, launched in 2020 and funded by the Department of Biotechnology (2), sequenced the whole genomes of about 10,000 healthy individuals from some 83–99 population groups across India and released the data in 2025 through the Indian Biological Data Centre. Its main aim is to build a reference catalogue of genetic variation of the Indian population for research, diagnostics and precision medicine (3). It is an Indian national project led by IISc's Centre for Brain Research and about 20 institutions; it is not part of the international Human Genome Project, which was completed in 2003 (1 is wrong).

      Read the notes: Biotechnology

    49. Question 49 · Science and Technology · IT and Emerging Tech

      Which of the following statements with regard to the National Quantum Mission (NQM) is/are correct?

      1. It aims at developing intermediate-scale quantum computers with 50 – 1000 physical qubits.
      2. Its implementation includes setting up of four Thematic Hubs (T-Hubs) in academic and national R&D institutes across India.

      Select the answer using the code given below :

      1. (a) 1 only
      2. (b) 2 only
      3. (c) Both 1 and 2
      4. (d) Neither 1 nor 2
      Answer and explanation

      Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

      The National Quantum Mission (2023–24 to 2030–31, outlay about ₹6,003 crore, under the Department of Science and Technology) aims to develop intermediate-scale quantum computers with 50–1000 physical qubits in eight years on platforms such as superconducting and photonic qubits (1). It is implemented through four Thematic Hubs (T-Hubs) in top academic and R&D institutions: quantum computing (IISc Bengaluru), quantum communication (IIT Madras with C-DOT), quantum sensing and metrology (IIT Bombay) and quantum materials and devices (IIT Delhi) (2). Both statements are correct.

      Read the notes: Information Technology

    50. Question 50 · Geography · Oceans

      Which of the following statements with regard to India's Deep Ocean Mission is/are correct?

      1. It was launched by the Ministry of Ports, Shipping and Waterways, Government of India.
      2. Matsya-6000 has been designed to carry 3 people for deep sea exploration.
      3. Samudrayaan is a project under this mission.

      Select the answer using the code given below :

      1. (a) 1 only
      2. (b) 2 and 3 only
      3. (c) 1 and 2 only
      4. (d) 1, 2 and 3
      Answer and explanation

      Answer: (b) 2 and 3 only

      The Deep Ocean Mission (approved 2021) is run by the Ministry of Earth Sciences, not the Ministry of Ports, Shipping and Waterways (1 is wrong). Its manned-submersible component, Samudrayaan, is developing MATSYA-6000 at NIOT Chennai, designed to carry three people to a depth of 6,000 m for deep-sea exploration (2 and 3). The mission also covers deep-sea mining technology, ocean climate advisory services, deep-sea biodiversity and ocean energy.

      Read the notes: Indian Climate

    51. Question 51 · Indian Society and Schemes · Society and Social Issues

      Mr. X, a senior officer, was overseeing a critical vaccination programme during a pandemic. He found that a private service provider responsible for vaccine distribution was compromising on quality to make profits. Despite immense pressure to manage the issue due to vested interests, he raised his voice based on the principles of public administration which he learnt during various training programmes attended across his career. He reported the issue to the appropriate vigilance authority and halted the contract to ensure citizen welfare.

      Which one among the following principles of public administration was most strongly demonstrated by Mr. X's actions?

      1. (a) Esprit de corps
      2. (b) Equity
      3. (c) Accountability
      4. (d) Delegation
      Answer and explanation

      Answer: (c) Accountability

      Mr. X held himself and the private provider answerable for the quality of a public service: he refused to bow to pressure from vested interests, reported the wrongdoing to the vigilance authority and stopped the contract in the citizens' interest. This is accountability, the principle that officials answer for the use of public resources and the outcomes of public programmes. Esprit de corps is team spirit and unity among staff; equity is fairness in treating people; delegation is the passing of authority to subordinates. None of these is the main principle shown.

    52. Question 52 · Indian Society and Schemes · Society and Social Issues

      In a multi-ethnic district where both economic competition and historical grievances frequently led to community tensions, a flashpoint has arisen with a Government decision to allocate land for a waste management facility near a tribal hamlet, sparking protests by the tribal community, which claimed that the land was sacred and critical to their cultural identity. At the same time, urban residents and local industries supported the project, citing severe solid waste challenges and health concerns due to lack of a proper disposal site. The conflict has escalated with road blockades, social media campaigns, and allegations of police excesses.

      As a responsible Government official, you are tasked with resolving the situation through mediation, ensuring a sustainable outcome that balances environmental needs, tribal rights, and urban public health.

      Consider the following statements with reference to the above :

      1. A successful conflict resolution process must begin with acknowledging the cultural concerns of the protesting tribal community before discussing technical alternatives.
      2. The Government should move ahead with the project without delay to address urban health concerns, which outweigh the sentiments of a small group.
      3. Creating a multi-stakeholder dialogue platform — including tribal leaders, environmental experts, and municipal representatives — to build mutual understanding and help de-escalate tensions.
      4. Conducting an independent Environmental and Social Impact Assessment (ESIA) and sharing findings transparently with both sides to facilitate evidence-based decision-making.

      Which of the statements given above would contribute to the resolution process?

      1. (a) 1, 3 and 4 only
      2. (b) 2, 3 and 4 only
      3. (c) 1 and 2 only
      4. (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
      Answer and explanation

      Answer: (a) 1, 3 and 4 only

      Good conflict resolution starts by recognising the tribal community's cultural and sacred concerns so that they feel heard before technical options are discussed (1); it builds a multi-stakeholder dialogue platform of tribal leaders, experts and municipal representatives to rebuild trust and lower tensions (3); and it uses an independent Environmental and Social Impact Assessment shared openly with both sides so that the decision rests on evidence (4). Pushing the project through without delay and dismissing the tribal community as 'a small group' (2) ignores their rights and consent (for example under the Forest Rights Act and the PESA framework) and would escalate the conflict.

    53. Question 53 · Indian Society and Schemes · Society and Social Issues

      Ms. X is a mid-level civil service official working in the urban development department of a major city. Recently, she was involved in approving a contract for a public infrastructure project — a new community park. During the approval process, she received a piece of confidential information indicating that one of the shortlisted contractors had a history of poor workmanship and allegations of corruption in other cities, though nothing had been legally proven. The Head of the Department, Mr. Y, advised her not to disclose this information to the project committee or the public because it could delay the project and damage the city's reputation. However, Ms. X believed that withholding such information compromised transparency and public trust.

      What amongst the following should Ms. X do now?

      1. Immediately disclose the information to the project committee and the public
      2. Recommend removing the contractor from the shortlist to protect the project's integrity
      3. Propose a 'limited disclosure' to an oversight committee, while keeping the information confidential from the public for the time being

      Select the answer using the code given below :

      1. (a) 1 and 2 only
      2. (b) 3 only
      3. (c) 2 and 3 only
      4. (d) 1, 2 and 3
      Answer and explanation

      Answer: (b) 3 only

      The information is serious but unproven, so the balanced course is a 'limited disclosure' to an oversight committee, which can verify it through due process while protecting confidentiality, fairness to the contractor and the integrity of the project (3). Making unverified allegations public immediately (1) could defame the contractor and breach confidentiality, and recommending removal from the shortlist on the basis of unproven allegations (2) would prejudge the matter. Keeping silent as Mr. Y advises would compromise transparency and public trust, so disclosure through the proper channel is the right step.

    54. Question 54 · Indian Polity and Governance · Fundamental Rights and Duties

      'X' was addressing a seminar on the meaning of the term 'law' as provided under Article 13, Part III of the Constitution of India. 'X' explained that the meaning of the term 'law' in the Constitution of India was very comprehensive. It included ordinances, orders and even rules and regulations. 'Y' pointed out that the term 'law' in Article 13 also included custom or usage having in the territory of India the force of law, to which 'X' was not convinced.

      Based on the above, select the correct conclusion from the options given below :

      1. (a) 'X' is correct in the interpretation of law, including the view on non-inclusion of custom.
      2. (b) The view of 'Y' that 'law' included custom is not correct.
      3. (c) The views of both 'X' and 'Y' are correct.
      4. (d) The view of only 'Y' is correct.
      Answer and explanation

      Answer: (d) The view of only 'Y' is correct.

      Article 13(3)(a) defines 'law' to include any ordinance, order, bye-law, rule, regulation, notification, custom or usage having in the territory of India the force of law. So Y is right that custom or usage having the force of law is 'law' under Article 13 and can be struck down if it violates Fundamental Rights. X's description of ordinances, orders, rules and regulations is correct as far as it goes, but X's interpretation as a whole, which rejects the inclusion of custom, is wrong. UPSC's key therefore treats only Y's view as correct.

      Read the notes: Fundamental Rights

    55. Question 55 · Indian Polity and Governance · Constitution and Preamble

      Consider the following statements with reference to the Constitution of India :

      1. There is no Article in the Constitution of India that specifies that the Constitution of India will be officially called the 'Constitution of India'.
      2. There is no Article in the Constitution of India that specifies that the Indian Independence Act, 1947 and the Government of India Act, 1935 stand repealed.
      3. There is no Article in the Constitution of India that mentions 26th January, 1950 as the date of the commencement of the Constitution of India.

      Which one of the following conclusions based on the above statements is correct?

      1. (a) All three statements are correct.
      2. (b) There is no correct statement.
      3. (c) There are two correct statements that include statement 3.
      4. (d) There is only one correct statement.
      Answer and explanation

      Answer: (b) There is no correct statement.

      All three statements are false. Article 393 gives the short title: 'This Constitution may be called the Constitution of India.' Article 395 repeals the Indian Independence Act, 1947 and the Government of India Act, 1935 (together with the enactments amending them, but not the Abolition of Privy Council Jurisdiction Act, 1949). Article 394 states that certain articles came into force at once and that the remaining provisions came into force on the twenty-sixth day of January, 1950, the commencement of the Constitution. So there is no correct statement.

      Read the notes: Making of the Constitution

    56. Question 56 · Indian Society and Schemes · Social Schemes

      Which of the following statements with regard to the persons with disabilities in India is/are correct?

      1. The Rights of Persons with Disabilities Act, an Act passed by the Parliament of India in 2018, mandates reservation in education and employment, places a legal duty on Governments to ensure accessibility and non-discrimination.
      2. The Sugamya Bharat Abhiyan focuses on achieving universal accessibility for Persons with Disabilities across three key domains — built infrastructure, transport systems and information and communication technology.
      3. The National Divyangjan Finance and Development Corporation (NDFDC) is a public sector organisation set up by the Ministry of Corporate Affairs as a not-for-profit company to promote entrepreneurship among Persons with Disabilities (PwDs).

      Select the answer using the code given below :

      1. (a) 1 and 2
      2. (b) 2 only
      3. (c) 1 and 3
      4. (d) 1 only
      Answer and explanation

      Answer: (b) 2 only

      The Rights of Persons with Disabilities Act was passed in December 2016 (in force from April 2017), not 2018; it does mandate 4% reservation in government jobs and 5% in higher education and places duties of accessibility and non-discrimination on governments, but the year makes statement 1 wrong. The Sugamya Bharat (Accessible India) Abhiyan (2015) targets universal accessibility in three areas: the built environment, the transport system and the information and communication ecosystem (2). NDFDC was set up in 1997 under the Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment (now with the Department of Empowerment of Persons with Disabilities) as a not-for-profit company, not by the Ministry of Corporate Affairs (3 is wrong).

      Read the notes: Poverty and Social Empowerment

    57. Question 57 · Indian Polity and Governance · Amendments and Basic Structure

      Consider the following statements about the provisions pertaining to the Scheduled Castes and the Scheduled Tribes in India :

      1. Provisions regarding the administration of the Tribal Areas in the States of Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram are given in the Fifth Schedule of the Constitution of India.
      2. Some tribes of India are entitled to exemption from paying Income Tax on certain incomes.
      3. The Constitution of India provides for reservation of seats in Panchayats for women belonging to the Scheduled Castes and the Scheduled Tribes.

      Which one of the following conclusions based on the above statements is correct?

      1. (a) There are two correct statements, that include statement 2.
      2. (b) There are two correct statements, that are statements 1 and 3.
      3. (c) There is only one correct statement.
      4. (d) All three statements are correct.
      Answer and explanation

      Answer: (a) There are two correct statements, that include statement 2.

      Statement 1 is wrong: the tribal areas of Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram are administered under the Sixth Schedule (autonomous district councils); the Fifth Schedule covers Scheduled Areas in other States. Statement 2 is correct: Section 10(26) of the Income-tax Act exempts certain income of members of Scheduled Tribes living in specified tribal areas of the North-east and Ladakh. Statement 3 is correct: Article 243D reserves not less than one-third of the seats reserved for SCs and STs in Panchayats for women of those groups. So two statements, including statement 2, are correct.

      Read the notes: Union Territories, Scheduled and Tribal Areas

    58. Question 58 · Indian Polity and Governance · Parliament

      Consider the following statements in respect of questions asked by the Members in the Parliament of India :

      1. Unstarred questions are those to which a Member desires an oral answer in the House.
      2. Starred questions are those to which a Member desires a written answer.
      3. No supplementary question can be asked on an unstarred question.

      Which one of the following conclusions based on the above statements is correct?

      1. (a) All the three statements are correct.
      2. (b) There are two correct statements, that include statement 2.
      3. (c) There is only one correct statement.
      4. (d) There is no correct statement.
      Answer and explanation

      Answer: (c) There is only one correct statement.

      The definitions in statements 1 and 2 are reversed. A starred question (marked with an asterisk) is one to which a member wants an oral answer on the floor of the House, and supplementary questions may follow it. An unstarred question receives a written answer laid on the Table, and no supplementary question can be asked on it, so statement 3 is correct. Only one statement is correct.

      Read the notes: Parliamentary System of Government

    59. Question 59 · Indian Polity and Governance · Parliament

      Consider the following statements about the Committee on the Welfare of Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes of the Parliament of India :

      1. Although members of this Committee are elected from both Houses of Parliament, the Chairperson of this Committee is appointed by the Chairman of the Rajya Sabha.
      2. Twenty members are elected by the Rajya Sabha and ten members by the Lok Sabha.
      3. No Minister, except for the Union Minister of Social Justice and Empowerment, is eligible to be a member of this Committee.
      4. Members are elected for a fixed term of two years from the date they enter their office.

      Which one of the following conclusions based on the above statements is correct?

      1. (a) There are four correct statements.
      2. (b) There is only one correct statement, that is statement 2.
      3. (c) There are two correct statements, that include statement 1.
      4. (d) There is no correct statement.
      Answer and explanation

      Answer: (d) There is no correct statement.

      All four statements are wrong. The Committee on the Welfare of SCs and STs has 30 members: 20 from the Lok Sabha and 10 from the Rajya Sabha (statement 2 reverses this). Its Chairperson is appointed by the Speaker of the Lok Sabha from among the Lok Sabha members, not by the Rajya Sabha Chairman (1 is wrong). No Minister can be a member of the committee, and a member who becomes a Minister ceases to be a member (3 is wrong). Members hold office for one year, not two (4 is wrong).

      Read the notes: Parliamentary System of Government

    60. Question 60 · Science and Technology · Defence and Nuclear

      Consider the following statements about Mission Sudarshan Chakra of India :

      1. It aims to enhance India's air defence, ballistic missile defence and aerial offensive capabilities.
      2. This Mission is being designed to enhance rapid, precise, and powerful defence responses, reinforcing India's strategic autonomy.
      3. One of the aims of this Mission is to cover all public places of India by an expanded nationwide security shield by 2035.

      Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

      1. (a) 1, 2 and 3
      2. (b) 1 and 2 only
      3. (c) 2 and 3 only
      4. (d) 1 only
      Answer and explanation

      Answer: (a) 1, 2 and 3

      Mission Sudarshan Chakra, announced by the Prime Minister on 15 August 2025, aims to build an indigenous, multi-layered national security shield integrating air defence, missile defence and the ability to strike back (1). It is meant to give rapid, precise and powerful responses to threats using domestic technology, reinforcing strategic autonomy (2). The stated goal is that by 2035 the expanded shield will protect the country's strategic, civilian and public places (3). UPSC's key accepts all three statements; this question was among those challenged before the CAT in 2026.

      Read the notes: Defence Technology

    61. Question 61 · International Relations

      Consider the following statements about river bridges connecting India with neighbouring countries :

      1. 'Maitri Setu', built over Feni river, connects Ramgarh in India with Sabroom in Bangladesh.
      2. Jhulaghat suspension bridge connects India with Myanmar.
      3. Mechi bridge and its approaches connect Panitanki Bypass in India with Kakarvitta in Nepal.

      Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

      1. (a) 1 and 2
      2. (b) 2 and 3
      3. (c) 1 only
      4. (d) 3 only
      Answer and explanation

      Answer: (d) 3 only

      Maitri Setu (inaugurated 2021) crosses the Feni river and links Sabroom in South Tripura, India with Ramgarh in Bangladesh, so statement 1 reverses the two towns. The Jhulaghat suspension bridge over the Mahakali river in Pithoragarh district, Uttarakhand, links India with Nepal, not Myanmar (2 is wrong). The Mechi bridge over the Mechi river, built with Indian assistance, connects the Panitanki bypass in Darjeeling district (West Bengal) with Kakarvitta in Nepal (3 is correct).

      Read the notes: India and Its Neighbourhood

    62. Question 62 · Indian Polity and Governance · Judiciary

      Which of the following statements about a Zero First Information Report (Zero FIR) under the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita (BNSS), 2023 is/are correct?

      1. A Zero FIR can be lodged at a police station, even though the place of commission of a cognizable/non-cognizable offence is outside the territorial jurisdiction of that police station.
      2. The Officer-in-Charge of the police station where a Zero FIR has been lodged may, with the permission of the competent authority, initiate a preliminary enquiry.
      3. Under Zero FIR, it is obligatory for the informant to furnish information electronically.

      Select the answer using the code given below :

      1. (a) 1, 2 and 3
      2. (b) 2 and 3 only
      3. (c) 1 only
      4. (d) 2 only
      Answer and explanation

      Answer: (d) 2 only

      Section 173(1) of the BNSS codifies the Zero FIR: information about a cognizable offence may be given at any police station irrespective of where the offence was committed, and the FIR is then transferred to the station with jurisdiction. It applies to cognizable offences, not non-cognizable ones, so statement 1 is wrong. Section 173(3) allows the officer in charge, with the prior permission of an officer not below the rank of DSP, to conduct a preliminary enquiry within 14 days for cognizable offences punishable with 3 to 7 years (2). Information may be given orally or by electronic communication (e-FIR), but electronic filing is optional, not obligatory (3 is wrong). Note: this question was challenged before the CAT in 2026.

      Read the notes: State Executive

    63. Question 63 · Indian Polity and Governance · Executive

      With reference to the organisations under the Government of India, consider the following details :

      Sl. No.OrganisationFunctionControlling Union Ministry
      1.Central Economic Intelligence Bureau (CEIB)To coordinate between various law enforcement agenciesMinistry of Home Affairs
      2.Serious Fraud Investigation Office (SFIO)To investigate complex corporate fraudsMinistry of Finance
      3.Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI)To preserve values in public life and ensure the health of the national economyMinistry of Personnel, Public Grievances and Pension

      In how many of the above rows are the given details correctly matched?

      1. (a) 1
      2. (b) 2
      3. (c) 3
      4. (d) None
      Answer and explanation

      Answer: (a) 1

      Only row 3 is fully correct. The Central Economic Intelligence Bureau coordinates intelligence and enforcement among economic-offence agencies, but it works under the Department of Revenue, Ministry of Finance, not the Ministry of Home Affairs (row 1 is wrong). The Serious Fraud Investigation Office investigates complex corporate frauds under the Ministry of Corporate Affairs, not the Ministry of Finance (row 2 is wrong). The CBI functions under the Department of Personnel and Training, Ministry of Personnel, Public Grievances and Pensions, and its stated mission is to uphold the Constitution, preserve values in public life and ensure the health of the national economy (row 3 is correct).

      Read the notes: Union Executive

    64. Question 65 · Science and Technology · IT and Emerging Tech

      Consider the following statements with respect to the AI Impact Summit, 2026 held in New Delhi :

      1. The Summit's intellectual framework was based on three foundational Sutras : People, Planning, and Progress.
      2. The Preamble of the Summit stresses Democratising AI Resources, which acknowledges the Charter for Democratic Diffusion of AI as a binding framework to support locally relevant innovation and strengthen resilient AI ecosystems while respecting national laws.
      3. The New Delhi Declaration on AI Impact was structured around seven Chakras (Pillars), which included Access for Social Empowerment, AI for Science, and Secure and Trusted AI.

      Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

      1. (a) 1, 2 and 3
      2. (b) 1 and 2 only
      3. (c) 2 and 3 only
      4. (d) 3 only
      Answer and explanation

      Answer: (d) 3 only

      The India AI Impact Summit (New Delhi, February 2026), the first global AI summit hosted in the Global South, was framed around three Sutras: People, Planet and Progress, not 'People, Planning and Progress' (1 is wrong). The Charter for the Democratic Diffusion of AI is a voluntary, non-binding framework, so describing it as binding is wrong (2). The New Delhi Declaration was organised around seven Chakras (working pillars), including access for social empowerment, AI for science and secure and trusted AI (3 is correct).

      Read the notes: Information Technology

    65. Question 66 · International Relations · Global Groupings

      Which of the following connectivity projects is/are a part of cooperation between India and the ASEAN member countries?

      1. Kaladan Multi-Modal Transit Transport Project
      2. IMT Trilateral Highway
      3. Agartala-Akhaura Rail Line

      Select the answer using the code given below :

      1. (a) 1 and 2
      2. (b) 2 and 3
      3. (c) 1 and 3
      4. (d) 2 only
      Answer and explanation

      Answer: (a) 1 and 2

      The Kaladan Multi-Modal Transit Transport Project links Kolkata to Sittwe port in Myanmar and then by river and road to Mizoram, and the India–Myanmar–Thailand Trilateral Highway runs from Moreh (Manipur) through Myanmar to Mae Sot in Thailand. Myanmar and Thailand are ASEAN members, so both projects are part of India's connectivity cooperation with ASEAN countries under the Act East Policy. The Agartala–Akhaura rail line links Tripura with Bangladesh, which is not an ASEAN member.

      Read the notes: Regional and Multilateral Groupings

    66. Question 67 · International Relations

      Match List I with List II and select the answer using the code given below the Lists :

      List I (Project Supported by India)List II (Country)
      A. Mangdechhu Hydroelectric Project1. Maldives
      B. Restoration of Stor Palace2. Afghanistan
      C. District Hospital at Dickoya3. Bhutan
      D. Institute of Security and Law Enforcement Studies4. Sri Lanka
      1. (a) A–1, B–4, C–2, D–3
      2. (b) A–3, B–2, C–4, D–1
      3. (c) A–3, B–4, C–2, D–1
      4. (d) A–1, B–2, C–4, D–3
      Answer and explanation

      Answer: (b) A–3, B–2, C–4, D–1

      The 720 MW Mangdechhu Hydroelectric Project was built with Indian grant and loan in Bhutan (A–3). India restored the 19th-century Stor Palace in Kabul, which houses Afghanistan's Ministry of Foreign Affairs, inaugurated in 2016 (B–2). The 150-bed District Hospital at Dickoya in the Central Province hill-country of Sri Lanka was built with Indian assistance (C–4). The Institute of Security and Law Enforcement Studies, a training institute for the Maldives Police Service at Addu, was built with Indian support (D–1). So the code is A–3, B–2, C–4, D–1.

      Read the notes: India and Its Neighbourhood

    67. Question 68 · Science and Technology · Defence and Nuclear

      Which of the following items of defence hardware is/are manufactured in India?

      1. Su-30 MKI Fighter Jets
      2. T-90 MK-III Tanks
      3. Akula Class Submarine

      Select the answer using the code given below :

      1. (a) 1 and 2
      2. (b) 1 and 3
      3. (c) 1 only
      4. (d) 2 only
      Answer and explanation

      Answer: (a) 1 and 2

      Su-30 MKI fighters are built under licence by HAL at Nashik, Maharashtra (1). T-90 'Bhishma' tanks, including the upgraded versions, are produced under licence at the Heavy Vehicles Factory, Avadi, Chennai (2). Akula-class nuclear-powered attack submarines are built in Russia; India has only leased them (INS Chakra), so they are not manufactured in India (3 is wrong).

      Read the notes: Defence Technology

    68. Question 69 · International Relations · Global Groupings

      Consider the following statements about platforms for multilateral co-operation :

      1. The 'Colombo Process' is a regional consultative process in which member states take binding decisions by consensus.
      2. The 'Abu Dhabi Dialogue' is a voluntary non-binding consultative process among Asian countries of labour origin and destination to facilitate regional cooperation on contractual labour mobility.
      3. The 'Global Forum for Migration and Development', created upon the proposal of a former UN Secretary General, is a voluntary forum whose decisions are non-binding in nature.

      Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

      1. (a) 1, 2 and 3
      2. (b) 1 and 3 only
      3. (c) 2 and 3 only
      4. (d) 2 only
      Answer and explanation

      Answer: (c) 2 and 3 only

      The Colombo Process (2003), a regional consultative process of Asian countries of origin of migrant workers (India is a member), is voluntary and non-binding; it does not take binding decisions (1 is wrong). The Abu Dhabi Dialogue (2008) brings together Asian countries of origin and Gulf/Asian countries of destination as a voluntary, non-binding forum on contractual labour mobility (2). The Global Forum on Migration and Development, which grew out of the 2006 UN High-Level Dialogue on the proposal of then UN Secretary-General Kofi Annan, is a voluntary, state-led, informal process whose outcomes are non-binding (3).

      Read the notes: India and Other Regions, Diaspora and the Global Commons

    69. Question 70 · International Relations · Global Groupings

      Consider the following UN organisations/agencies :

      1. World Food Programme
      2. United Nations Children's Fund
      3. United Nations High Commissioner for Refugees
      4. International Labour Organisation

      How many of the above has/have been awarded the Nobel Prize twice?

      1. (a) 1
      2. (b) 2
      3. (c) 3
      4. (d) 4
      Answer and explanation

      Answer: (a) 1

      Only the Office of the UN High Commissioner for Refugees has won the Nobel Peace Prize twice, in 1954 and 1981. UNICEF won it once (1965), the International Labour Organization once (1969, its 50th anniversary) and the World Food Programme once (2020). (The International Committee of the Red Cross, which has won it three times, is not a UN body.)

      Read the notes: International Institutions and Global Regimes

    70. Question 71 · International Relations · Global Groupings

      Match List I with List II and select the answer using the code given below the Lists :

      List I (UN Peacekeeping Operation)List II (Period of Operation)
      A. UNMIL1. 2007 – 2010
      B. MINURCAT2. 2002 – 2005
      C. MINUSTAH3. 2003 – 2018
      D. UNMISET4. 2004 – 2017
      1. (a) A–3, B–4, C–1, D–2
      2. (b) A–3, B–1, C–4, D–2
      3. (c) A–2, B–1, C–4, D–3
      4. (d) A–2, B–4, C–1, D–3
      Answer and explanation

      Answer: (b) A–3, B–1, C–4, D–2

      UNMIL, the UN Mission in Liberia, ran from 2003 to 2018 (A–3). MINURCAT, the UN Mission in the Central African Republic and Chad, ran from 2007 to 2010 (B–1). MINUSTAH, the UN Stabilization Mission in Haiti, ran from 2004 to 2017 (C–4). UNMISET, the UN Mission of Support in East Timor (Timor-Leste), ran from 2002 to 2005 (D–2). So the code is A–3, B–1, C–4, D–2.

      Read the notes: International Institutions and Global Regimes

    71. Question 72 · International Relations · Global Groupings

      Match List I with List II and select the answer using the code given below the Lists :

      List I (BIMSTEC Centre/Establishment)List II (Location)
      A. BIMSTEC Cultural Industries Observatory1. NOIDA
      B. BIMSTEC Energy Centre2. Bengaluru
      C. BIMSTEC Centre for Weather and Climate3. Colombo
      D. BIMSTEC Technology Transfer Facility4. Thimphu
      1. (a) A–3, B–2, C–1, D–4
      2. (b) A–3, B–1, C–2, D–4
      3. (c) A–4, B–2, C–1, D–3
      4. (d) A–4, B–1, C–2, D–3
      Answer and explanation

      Answer: (c) A–4, B–2, C–1, D–3

      BIMSTEC centres are spread across member states: the BIMSTEC Cultural Industries Observatory is in Thimphu, Bhutan (A–4); the BIMSTEC Energy Centre is in Bengaluru, India (B–2); the BIMSTEC Centre for Weather and Climate is at NCMRWF, NOIDA, India (C–1); and the BIMSTEC Technology Transfer Facility is in Colombo, Sri Lanka (D–3). The code is A–4, B–2, C–1, D–3. The BIMSTEC Secretariat itself is in Dhaka.

      Read the notes: Regional and Multilateral Groupings

    72. Question 73 · Science and Technology · Defence and Nuclear

      Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?

      (Indian Army Corps) : (Headquarters)

      1. (a) 3 Corps : Dimapur
      2. (b) 4 Corps : Tezpur
      3. (c) 14 Corps : Leh
      4. (d) 33 Corps : Srinagar
      Answer and explanation

      Answer: (d) 33 Corps : Srinagar

      3 Corps (Spear Corps) is headquartered at Rangapahar, Dimapur; 4 Corps (Gajraj Corps) at Tezpur; and 14 Corps (Fire and Fury Corps) at Leh, so these pairs are correct. 33 Corps (Trishakti Corps), responsible for Sikkim and the Siliguri corridor, is headquartered at Sukna near Siliguri, West Bengal, not Srinagar. The corps at Srinagar is 15 Corps (Chinar Corps).

      Read the notes: Defence Technology

    73. Question 74 · Indian Polity and Governance · Local Government

      Which of the following statements with respect to the Revamped Rashtriya Gram Swaraj Abhiyan (RGSA) is/are correct?

      1. The period of its implementation is 1st April, 2021 to 31st March, 2026.
      2. The key objective of the Revamped RGSA is to develop the governance capabilities of the Panchayati Raj Institutions to deliver on the Sustainable Development Goals.
      3. The share of the Central funding for the Revamped RGSA is 100% for all States and Union Territories.

      Select the answer using the code given below :

      1. (a) 1 and 2
      2. (b) 2 only
      3. (c) 1 and 3
      4. (d) 2 and 3
      Answer and explanation

      Answer: (b) 2 only

      The Revamped Rashtriya Gram Swaraj Abhiyan, approved in April 2022, runs from 2022–23 to 2025–26 (1 April 2022 to 31 March 2026), not from 2021 (1 is wrong). Its key objective is to build the governance capabilities of Panchayati Raj Institutions so that they can deliver on the localised Sustainable Development Goals (2). Funding is shared: the Central component is fully central, but the State component is shared 60:40 between the Centre and States, 90:10 for the North-eastern and hill States and Jammu and Kashmir, and 100% central only for Union Territories, so statement 3 is wrong.

      Read the notes: Local Government

    74. Question 75 · International Relations · Global Groupings

      Which of the following countries are members of the European Union?

      1. Belarus
      2. Poland
      3. Germany
      4. Switzerland

      Select the answer using the code given below :

      1. (a) 1, 2 and 4
      2. (b) 1 and 4 only
      3. (c) 2 and 3
      4. (d) 2 and 4 only
      Answer and explanation

      Answer: (c) 2 and 3

      Poland (joined 2004) and Germany (a founding member of the European Economic Community in 1957) are members of the European Union. Belarus is not a member; it is in the Union State with Russia and the Eurasian Economic Union. Switzerland is not an EU member either; it is linked to the EU through bilateral agreements and is part of the Schengen Area and EFTA.

      Read the notes: Regional and Multilateral Groupings

    75. Question 76 · International Relations · Global Groupings

      Match List I with List II and select the answer using the code given below the Lists :

      List I (INTERPOL Notice)List II (Description)
      A. Silver Notice1. To seek information on unidentified bodies
      B. Blue Notice2. To collect additional information about a person's identity, location, or activities in relation to a criminal investigation
      C. Black Notice3. To provide warning about a person's criminal activities, where the person is considered to be a possible threat to public safety
      D. Green Notice4. To identify and trace criminal assets
      1. (a) A–3, B–1, C–2, D–4
      2. (b) A–3, B–2, C–1, D–4
      3. (c) A–4, B–2, C–1, D–3
      4. (d) A–4, B–1, C–2, D–3
      Answer and explanation

      Answer: (c) A–4, B–2, C–1, D–3

      INTERPOL's colour-coded notices: the Silver Notice (introduced in 2025 on a pilot basis, with India among the first users) seeks to locate and trace criminal assets (A–4); the Blue Notice collects additional information about a person's identity, location or activities in relation to a crime (B–2); the Black Notice seeks information on unidentified bodies (C–1); and the Green Notice warns about a person's criminal activities where the person is considered a possible threat to public safety (D–3). Other notices include Red (arrest for extradition), Yellow (missing persons), Orange (imminent threats) and Purple (modus operandi).

    76. Question 77 · Environment and Ecology · Indian Laws and Policies

      Which of the following statements in relation to NIRANTAR (National Institute for Research and Application of Natural Resources to Transform, Adapt and Build Resilience), a platform of institutions under the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change, is/are correct?

      1. Ecosystem Survey and Analysis is a vertical under this platform, the lead institute of which is Botanical Survey of India, Kolkata.
      2. Research and Management of Ecosystem Service is a vertical under this platform, the lead institute of which is Central Zoo Authority, New Delhi.
      3. Capacity Development Support is a vertical under this platform, the lead institute of which is Indian Institute of Forest Management, Bhopal.

      Select the answer using the code given below :

      1. (a) 1, 2 and 3
      2. (b) 1 and 3 only
      3. (c) 2 only
      4. (d) 3 only
      Answer and explanation

      Answer: (b) 1 and 3 only

      NIRANTAR groups MoEFCC's scientific institutions into thematic verticals, each with a lead institute. Ecosystem survey and analysis is led by the Botanical Survey of India, Kolkata (1), and capacity development support is led by the Indian Institute of Forest Management, Bhopal (3). The Central Zoo Authority is the statutory regulator of zoos under the Wild Life (Protection) Act; it is not the lead institute for research and management of ecosystem services, so statement 2 is wrong (UPSC key: 1 and 3 only).

      Read the notes: Environmental Laws and Institutions

    77. Question 78 · International Relations

      The Chancellor of the Federal Republic of Germany visited India in January, 2026. Which of the following is/are not correct in terms of outcomes of this visit?

      1. Signing of a Memorandum of Understanding between the All India Institute of Ayurveda and the University of Hamburg
      2. Signing of a Memorandum of Understanding on Youth Hockey Development between Hockey India and the German Hockey Federation
      3. Establishment of a bilateral dialogue mechanism on the Indo-Pacific
      4. Opening of an Honorary Consul of Germany in Lucknow

      Select the answer using the code given below :

      1. (a) 2 and 3
      2. (b) 1 and 4
      3. (c) 3 and 4
      4. (d) 1 only
      Answer and explanation

      Answer: (b) 1 and 4

      German Chancellor Friedrich Merz made his first official visit to India in January 2026. The outcome list included a Memorandum of Understanding between Hockey India and the German Hockey Federation on youth hockey development and the establishment of a bilateral dialogue mechanism on the Indo-Pacific. An MoU between the All India Institute of Ayurveda and the University of Hamburg, and the opening of a German honorary consul in Lucknow, were not among the outcomes, so statements 1 and 4 are not correct (UPSC key).

      Read the notes: India and Major Powers

    78. Question 79 · Science and Technology · IT and Emerging Tech

      Which of the following statements about DHRUV64 is/are correct?

      1. It is the third chip fabricated under the DIR-V Programme with an overall aim to enable the creation of microprocessors for India.
      2. It is India's first homegrown 1·0 GHz, 64-bit dual-core microprocessor.

      Select the answer using the code given below :

      1. (a) 1 only
      2. (b) 2 only
      3. (c) Both 1 and 2
      4. (d) Neither 1 nor 2
      Answer and explanation

      Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

      DHRUV64, unveiled by C-DAC in December 2025 under the Microprocessor Development Programme of the Ministry of Electronics and IT, is India's first indigenous 1.0 GHz, 64-bit dual-core microprocessor (2). It is the third chip fabricated under the Digital India RISC-V (DIR-V) programme, which aims to create a self-reliant ecosystem of RISC-V-based microprocessors for India (1). Both statements are correct.

      Read the notes: Information Technology

    79. Question 80 · Science and Technology · Defence and Nuclear

      The Bureau of Indian Standard (BIS) recently introduced a national standard to test and assess bomb disposal system. Which of the following statements with regard to this system is/are correct?

      1. The new standard is known as IS 19445 : 2025.
      2. It will improve interoperability of equipment across agencies.
      3. It was developed by TBRL, DRDO in collaboration with the 30th Central Scientific Research Institute, Russia.

      Select the answer using the code given below :

      1. (a) 1, 2 and 3
      2. (b) 2 and 3 only
      3. (c) 1 and 2 only
      4. (d) 1 only
      Answer and explanation

      Answer: (c) 1 and 2 only

      In 2025 the Bureau of Indian Standards notified IS 19445:2025, India's first national standard for testing and evaluating bomb disposal systems such as bomb blankets, suppression vessels, protective suits and containment equipment (1). A common standard lets different security agencies (police, central armed police forces, the NSG and the armed forces) buy and use equipment that meets the same performance benchmarks, improving interoperability (2). Statement 3 is not correct as per UPSC's key: the standard was formulated by BIS as an Indian national standard with domestic expert and user bodies, not developed by DRDO's TBRL jointly with Russia's 30th Central Scientific Research Institute.

    80. Question 81 · Science and Technology · Physics

      'X', born in the UK, was conferred the Nobel Prize in 2025. He was a professor in an American university when this prize was announced. Identify 'X' :

      1. (a) Michel H. Devoret
      2. (b) Richard Robson
      3. (c) John Clarke
      4. (d) Joel Mokyr
      Answer and explanation

      Answer: (c) John Clarke

      The 2025 Physics Nobel went to John Clarke, Michel H. Devoret and John M. Martinis for demonstrating macroscopic quantum tunnelling and energy quantisation in an electric circuit. John Clarke was born in Cambridge, UK, and is a professor at the University of California, Berkeley, so he is 'X'. Devoret was born in Paris (France) and works at Yale and UC Santa Barbara. Richard Robson (Chemistry 2025, metal-organic frameworks) was born in the UK but is at the University of Melbourne, Australia. Joel Mokyr (Economics 2025) was born in the Netherlands and teaches at Northwestern University.

    81. Question 82 · International Relations

      Which of the following statements with regard to the Grand Slam Tennis Tournaments is/are correct?

      1. The tournaments have a shared governance structure establishing the partnership among the four Grand Slam tournaments.
      2. They are open for entry to all internationally ranked tennis players above the age of 14.
      3. There is a limitation on the number of 'Wild Cards' a player may receive to compete in a Grand Slam Tournament.

      Select the answer using the code given below :

      1. (a) 1 and 2 only
      2. (b) 2 and 3 only
      3. (c) 1 only
      4. (d) 1, 2 and 3
      Answer and explanation

      Answer: (a) 1 and 2 only

      UPSC's provisional key gives (a), statements 1 and 2. The four Grand Slams (Australian Open, Roland-Garros, Wimbledon and US Open) are jointly governed with the ITF through the Grand Slam Board, which sets common rules, the Grand Slam rulebook and integrity programmes (1). Entry is open to professional players on the basis of their world ranking, subject to the tours' age eligibility rules for young players (UPSC accepts statement 2). There is no fixed cap on how many wild cards a player may receive over a career; each tournament awards its own wild cards (3 is wrong). Note: coaching keys (ForumIAS, ClearIAS, StudyIQ) gave (c), arguing that statement 2 ignores ranking cut-offs, and this question was challenged before the CAT in 2026; UPSC's final key may differ.

    82. Question 83 · Economy · Infrastructure

      Which one of the following pairs of semiconductor plants in India and their locations is not correctly matched?

      1. (a) CG Power and Industrial Solutions Pvt. Ltd. in partnership with Renesas Electronics and STARS Microelectronics : Gujarat
      2. (b) Tata Semiconductor Assembly and Test Pvt. Ltd. : Assam
      3. (c) HCL-Foxconn Joint Venture India Chip Ltd. : Madhya Pradesh
      4. (d) SicSem Pvt. Ltd. : Odisha
      Answer and explanation

      Answer: (c) HCL-Foxconn Joint Venture India Chip Ltd. : Madhya Pradesh

      The HCL–Foxconn joint venture semiconductor (OSAT/display-driver chip) unit approved under the India Semiconductor Mission in 2025 is located near the Jewar airport in Uttar Pradesh, not Madhya Pradesh, so this pair is wrong. The other pairs are correct: the CG Power–Renesas–Stars Microelectronics OSAT unit is at Sanand, Gujarat; Tata Semiconductor Assembly and Test's unit is at Jagiroad, Assam; and SiCSem's silicon-carbide compound semiconductor fab is in Bhubaneswar, Odisha.

      Read the notes: Industries

    83. Question 84 · Geography · Climate and Monsoon

      Which of the following statements with regard to India's indigenous new high resolution weather model, the 'Bharat Forecast System,' is/are correct?

      1. Its objective is to generate forecasts at the Panchayats cluster level.
      2. It was developed by IIT Delhi.

      Select the answer using the code given below :

      1. (a) 1 only
      2. (b) 2 only
      3. (c) Both 1 and 2
      4. (d) Neither 1 nor 2
      Answer and explanation

      Answer: (a) 1 only

      The Bharat Forecast System, launched in May 2025, is an indigenous global weather model with a resolution of about 6 km, the finest of any operational global model, which allows forecasts down to clusters of gram panchayats and better prediction of extreme rainfall (1). It was developed by the Indian Institute of Tropical Meteorology (IITM), Pune, under the Ministry of Earth Sciences, and runs on the Arka supercomputer; it was not developed by IIT Delhi (2 is wrong).

      Read the notes: Indian Climate

    84. Question 85 · Art and Culture · Festivals and Crafts

      Consider the following statements with regard to the film 'Boong' :

      1. The film has recently won the British Academy of Film and Television Arts (BAFTA) Award in the Children's and Family Film category.
      2. The film is directed by Lakshmipriya Devi.
      3. This is the first Indian film to win a BAFTA award in the Children's and Family Film category.

      Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

      1. (a) 1, 2 and 3
      2. (b) 2 and 3 only
      3. (c) 1 and 2 only
      4. (d) 3 only
      Answer and explanation

      Answer: (a) 1, 2 and 3

      'Boong', a Manipuri-language film about a young boy in Manipur searching for his father, won the BAFTA for Best Children's and Family Film at the British Academy Film Awards (1). It is the debut feature of director Lakshmipriya Devi (2). It is the first Indian film to win a BAFTA in this category (3). All three statements are correct.

      Read the notes: Heritage, Institutions and Cinema

    85. Question 86 · Science and Technology · IT and Emerging Tech

      Which of the following statements regarding the features of blockchain technology are correct?

      1. Records stored in the database may be made visible to relevant stakeholders without risk of alteration.
      2. Copies of the entire database are stored on multiple computers on a network, syncing within seconds.
      3. Consortium blockchain is a blend of public and private blockchains allowing selective data access.
      4. Mathematical algorithms make it impossible to change or delete any data once recorded and accepted.

      Select the answer using the code given below :

      1. (a) 1 and 3
      2. (b) 2 and 4 only
      3. (c) 1, 2 and 4
      4. (d) 1 and 4 only
      Answer and explanation

      Answer: (c) 1, 2 and 4

      A blockchain is a distributed ledger: identical copies are kept on many nodes and synchronised through a consensus mechanism (2); records can be shared with authorised stakeholders while cryptographic hashing makes tampering evident (1); and once a block is validated and added, changing or deleting its data is practically impossible without redoing the chain (4). Statement 3 is wrong: a consortium blockchain is a permissioned blockchain run jointly by a group of organisations; a blend of public and private blockchains is a 'hybrid' blockchain. Note: this question was challenged before the CAT in 2026; the answer follows UPSC's key.

      Read the notes: Information Technology

    86. Question 87 · Economy

      An e-commerce revenue model where the seller has control over pricing but doesn't keep products in stock and instead transfers customer orders and shipment details to a third-party supplier, who then ships the goods directly to the customer, is called :

      1. (a) Dropshipping Model
      2. (b) Affiliate Revenue Model
      3. (c) Transaction Fee Revenue Model
      4. (d) Agency Revenue Model
      Answer and explanation

      Answer: (a) Dropshipping Model

      In dropshipping, the online seller lists products and sets their prices but holds no inventory; when an order arrives, it passes the order and shipping details to a third-party supplier (manufacturer or wholesaler), who ships directly to the customer, and the seller earns the margin. In the affiliate model a site earns a commission for referring buyers to another seller and does not control prices; the transaction-fee model earns a fee per transaction on a platform; and in the agency model the supplier, not the seller, sets the price and the seller acts as an agent for a commission.

      Read the notes: Introduction to Economics

    87. Question 88 · Economy · Money and Banking

      Which one of the following correctly represents the three key sub-indices of the Financial Inclusion Index (FI-Index) of the Reserve Bank of India (RBI)?

      1. (a) Credit access, Insurance depth, and Pension coverage
      2. (b) Banking access, GDP contribution, and Financial literacy
      3. (c) Access, Usage, and Quality
      4. (d) Access, Affordability, and Transparency
      Answer and explanation

      Answer: (c) Access, Usage, and Quality

      RBI's Financial Inclusion Index (FI-Index), launched in 2021 and published annually for the year ending March, captures the extent of financial inclusion across banking, investments, insurance, postal and pension services on a scale of 0 to 100. It has three sub-indices: Access (35% weight), Usage (45%) and Quality (20%), the last covering financial literacy, consumer protection and inequalities. The other combinations are not the official sub-indices.

      Read the notes: Inclusive Growth

    88. Question 89 · Economy

      Which one of the following best describes the key objective of India's 'Open Network for Digital Commerce' (ONDC) initiative?

      1. (a) To allow government control over all digital commerce transactions
      2. (b) To replace private e-commerce players
      3. (c) To break the dominance of large e-commerce platforms by enabling interoperability across networks
      4. (d) To mandate UPI-based payments for all online transactions
      Answer and explanation

      Answer: (c) To break the dominance of large e-commerce platforms by enabling interoperability across networks

      ONDC, promoted by the Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade, is an open, interoperable network rather than a platform. Buyer apps and seller apps that join it can transact with each other, so a small seller listed on one app becomes visible to buyers on any other app. This aims to democratise digital commerce and reduce the dominance of a few large platforms that control both buyers and sellers. It does not give the government control over transactions, does not replace private players (they can join the network) and does not mandate UPI.

      Read the notes: Introduction to Economics

    89. Question 90 · Economy · Money and Banking

      Which one of the following statements about Unified Payments Interface (UPI) and Central Bank Digital Currency (Digital Rupee) is not correct?

      1. (a) UPI is a real-time payment system but Digital Rupee is akin to sovereign paper currency.
      2. (b) In case of UPI, settlement for end users happens instantly as the money gets immediately debited or credited but in case of Digital Rupee, there is no settlement as the wallet balance gets transferred to another wallet.
      3. (c) UPI transactions are recorded by banks and reflected in bank statements but in case of Digital Rupee, no data is captured in bank statements as transactions are from one wallet to another.
      4. (d) In both the cases (UPI and Digital Rupee), the liability lies with the users and their respective banks.
      Answer and explanation

      Answer: (d) In both the cases (UPI and Digital Rupee), the liability lies with the users and their respective banks.

      Statement (d) is not correct. The Digital Rupee (e₹) is legal tender issued by the RBI in digital form, so it is a direct liability of the RBI, like banknotes; banks only distribute it through wallets. Money moved through UPI is a bank deposit, which is a liability of the bank. The other statements reflect RBI's own comparison: UPI is a real-time payment system for moving bank money, while e₹ is akin to sovereign currency (a); a UPI payment is settled between banks, whereas an e₹ payment moves the token itself from wallet to wallet with no separate inter-bank settlement (b); and e₹ wallet-to-wallet transactions do not appear in the user's bank statement (c).

      Read the notes: Money

    90. Question 91 · Economy · Money and Banking

      Which of the following statements about Real-World Assets (RWA) Tokenization are correct?

      1. Tokenization is the process of turning real world assets into digital tokens using blockchain technology.
      2. Tokenization of real world assets offers 24 × 7 access, promoting financial inclusion.
      3. Tokenization of real world assets will allow the access to high growth investment opportunities for individuals in India.

      Select the answer using the code given below :

      1. (a) 1, 2 and 3
      2. (b) 2 and 3 only
      3. (c) 1 and 2 only
      4. (d) 1 and 3 only
      Answer and explanation

      Answer: (a) 1, 2 and 3

      Real-world asset tokenisation converts ownership rights in physical or financial assets (real estate, bonds, gold, art, invoices) into digital tokens recorded on a blockchain (1). Tokens can be traded around the clock and in small fractions, which lowers the ticket size and widens participation, promoting financial inclusion (2). Fractional ownership lets ordinary investors access high-value, high-growth assets that were earlier open only to large investors (3). All three statements are correct; in India such activity remains subject to regulation by SEBI and RBI.

    91. Question 92 · Economy · Money and Banking

      A bond whose proceeds are used only to finance or refinance a combination of both environmental and social projects is called :

      1. (a) Green Bond
      2. (b) Social Bond
      3. (c) Sustainability Bond
      4. (d) Sovereign Bond
      Answer and explanation

      Answer: (c) Sustainability Bond

      Under the ICMA principles, a sustainability bond is one whose proceeds are used exclusively to finance or refinance a combination of green (environmental) and social projects. A green bond funds only projects with environmental benefits (renewable energy, clean transport), a social bond funds only projects with social outcomes (affordable housing, health, employment), and a sovereign bond is simply a bond issued by a national government, whatever the use of funds.

      Read the notes: Financial Market

    92. Question 93 · Economy · Money and Banking

      Which of the following statements about M1xchange's role in Micro, Small & Medium Enterprises (MSMEs) financing is/are correct?

      1. M1xchange provides collateral based loans to MSMEs.
      2. M1xchange facilitates discounting of invoices and Bills of Exchange for MSMEs.
      3. M1xchange functions as a credit rating agency for MSMEs.

      Select the answer using the code given below :

      1. (a) 1, 2 and 3
      2. (b) 2 only
      3. (c) 2 and 3 only
      4. (d) 1 only
      Answer and explanation

      Answer: (b) 2 only

      M1xchange is an RBI-licensed Trade Receivables Discounting System (TReDS) platform. It lets MSME sellers upload invoices and bills of exchange raised on large corporate and PSU buyers; once the buyer accepts them, banks and NBFCs bid to discount them, so the MSME gets early payment without collateral (2). M1xchange does not lend itself, let alone against collateral (1 is wrong), and it is not a credit rating agency (3 is wrong); the financing comes from the participating financiers on the strength of the buyer's credit.

      Read the notes: Industries

    93. Question 94 · Economy · Fiscal Policy and Budget

      Which one of the following best describes the 'Crowding Out Effect' in the context of fiscal policy?

      1. (a) A situation where private investment increases due to increased Government spending
      2. (b) A situation where Government borrowing leads to higher interest rates, which reduces private investment
      3. (c) A situation where an increase in taxes leads to increased private sector investment
      4. (d) A situation where Government spending has no impact on aggregate demand
      Answer and explanation

      Answer: (b) A situation where Government borrowing leads to higher interest rates, which reduces private investment

      Crowding out occurs when higher government borrowing to finance a deficit increases the demand for loanable funds and pushes up interest rates, making borrowing costlier for firms and so reducing private investment. Option (a) describes 'crowding in', the opposite case in which public spending (for example on infrastructure) stimulates private investment. Higher taxes usually reduce rather than raise private investment, and crowding out does not mean that government spending has no effect on aggregate demand, only that part of its effect is offset.

      Read the notes: Budgeting and Fiscal Policy

    94. Question 95 · Geography · Resources and Industry

      Which of the following statements about Rare Earth Elements (REEs) and Critical Minerals is/are correct?

      1. Modern technological innovations including Artificial Intelligence, robotics and space exploration extensively utilise Rare Earth Elements (REEs).
      2. China has the highest share in mining of REEs followed by India.
      3. The Government of India launched the National Critical Mineral Mission (NCMM) in 2025 to establish a robust framework for self-reliance in the critical mineral sector.
      4. Rare Earth Elements are a set of 13 metallic elements.

      Select the answer using the code given below :

      1. (a) 1 and 3 only
      2. (b) 3 only
      3. (c) 1, 3 and 4
      4. (d) 1, 2 and 4
      Answer and explanation

      Answer: (a) 1 and 3 only

      Rare earth elements are essential for permanent magnets, electronics, robotics, AI hardware, electric vehicles, defence and space systems (1). The Union Cabinet approved the National Critical Mineral Mission in January 2025 (outlay ₹16,300 crore plus ₹18,000 crore from PSUs) to secure self-reliance across the critical-mineral value chain (3). China dominates rare-earth mining (about 70%), but the next largest producers are the USA, Myanmar and Australia; India, despite large reserves, has a very small share (2 is wrong). Rare earths are a group of 17 elements: the 15 lanthanides plus scandium and yttrium, not 13 (4 is wrong).

      Read the notes: Mineral and Energy Resources, Industries in India

    95. Question 96 · Economy

      Which of the following statements about insurance in aviation sector is/are correct?

      1. 'Aviation Hull Insurance' covers the physical aircraft, including the body, engine, and on-board equipment.
      2. Under the Montreal Convention, adopted in 1999 by over 130 countries, including India, airlines are strictly liable to pay compensation to the family/nominee of every deceased passenger without requiring the family to prove fault.

      Select the answer using the code given below :

      1. (a) 1 only
      2. (b) 2 only
      3. (c) Both 1 and 2
      4. (d) Neither 1 nor 2
      Answer and explanation

      Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

      Aviation hull insurance covers physical loss of or damage to the aircraft itself, including the airframe, engines and on-board equipment (1). The Montreal Convention, 1999 (to which India acceded in 2009, and which has well over 130 parties) makes airlines strictly liable for death or bodily injury of passengers up to a fixed limit (now about 151,880 SDRs): the family need not prove fault for claims up to that limit, while above it the airline can escape liability only by proving it was not negligent (2). UPSC's key accepts both statements; this question was challenged before the CAT in 2026.

      Read the notes: Financial Market

    96. Question 97 · Economy · Money and Banking

      Which of the following statements about Crowdfunding is/are correct?

      1. Crowdfunding is solicitation of funds (small amount) from multiple investors through a web-based platform or social networking site for a specific project.
      2. Small and Medium Enterprises (SMEs) are able to raise funds at lower cost of capital without undergoing rigorous procedures.

      Select the answer using the code given below :

      1. (a) 1 only
      2. (b) 2 only
      3. (c) Both 1 and 2
      4. (d) Neither 1 nor 2
      Answer and explanation

      Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

      Crowdfunding is raising small amounts of money from a large number of people, usually through an online platform or social media, for a specific project or venture (1). For start-ups and SMEs it can be a cheaper and quicker source of capital than bank loans or a public issue, without lengthy documentation or collateral (2). In India, equity crowdfunding is not permitted by SEBI for unlisted companies, but donation- and reward-based crowdfunding are widely used. Both statements are correct.

    97. Question 98 · Economy · Money and Banking

      With reference to different Committees in India, consider the following details :

      Sl. No.CommitteeObjectiveOrganization under which it was formed
      1.R.N. Malhotra CommitteeComprehensive reforms of Insurance sector in IndiaInsurance Regulatory and Development Authority of India
      2.L.C. Gupta CommitteePreparing a roadmap for the introduction of derivatives trading in IndiaSecurities and Exchange Board of India
      3.Urjit R. Patel CommitteePreparing a roadmap for reforming bank lending to the Housing sectorReserve Bank of India
      4.Y.H. Malegam CommitteePreparing a roadmap for reforms in Microfinance sector in IndiaReserve Bank of India

      In which of the above rows are all the details correctly matched?

      1. (a) 2 only
      2. (b) 2 and 3
      3. (c) 1, 3 and 4
      4. (d) 2 and 4
      Answer and explanation

      Answer: (d) 2 and 4

      Row 2 and row 4 are correct. The L.C. Gupta Committee (1996–98) was set up by SEBI to develop a framework for derivatives trading, leading to index futures in 2000. The Y.H. Malegam Committee (2010) was set up by RBI's Board to study issues in the microfinance sector after the Andhra Pradesh crisis. The R.N. Malhotra Committee (1993) on insurance reforms was set up by the Government of India (Ministry of Finance); IRDA itself was created in 1999 on its recommendation, so row 1 is wrong. The Urjit R. Patel Committee (2013–14) was an RBI expert committee to revise and strengthen the monetary policy framework (recommending inflation targeting), not housing finance, so row 3 is wrong.

      Read the notes: Financial Market

    98. Question 99 · Economy · Money and Banking

      Consider the following statements about the Non-Banking Financial Companies (NBFCs) in India :

      1. NBFCs cannot accept demand deposits.
      2. All the NBFCs operating in India have to be registered with the RBI.
      3. NBFCs form part of the payment and settlement system and can issue cheque drawn on itself.
      4. Deposit insurance facility of Deposit Insurance and Credit Guarantee Corporation (DICGC) is not available to the depositors of deposit taking NBFCs.

      Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

      1. (a) 1 and 4
      2. (b) 1, 2 and 3
      3. (c) 4 only
      4. (d) 2, 3 and 4
      Answer and explanation

      Answer: (a) 1 and 4

      RBI's FAQs on NBFCs list these differences from banks: NBFCs cannot accept demand deposits (1); they are not part of the payment and settlement system and cannot issue cheques drawn on themselves (3 is wrong); and deposit insurance from DICGC is not available to depositors of NBFCs, unlike bank depositors (4). Not every NBFC registers with RBI: companies doing insurance (IRDAI), merchant banking, stock broking, venture capital and similar business (SEBI), chit funds (State governments) and Nidhi companies (Ministry of Corporate Affairs) are exempt from RBI registration, so statement 2 is wrong.

      Read the notes: Banking

    99. Question 100 · Economy · Poverty and Employment

      Consider the following statements about Multidimensional Poverty Index (MPI) :

      1. MPI is calculated using Alkire-Foster methodology.
      2. MPI calculated by NITI Aayog has a total of twelve indicators.
      3. Maternal Health and Bank Account are common indicators in the MPI of NITI Aayog and MPI of United Nations Development Programme (UNDP).

      Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

      1. (a) 1 and 2 only
      2. (b) 1, 2 and 3
      3. (c) 1 and 3 only
      4. (d) 2 only
      Answer and explanation

      Answer: (a) 1 and 2 only

      Both the global MPI (UNDP–OPHI) and NITI Aayog's National MPI use the Alkire-Foster method, which counts overlapping deprivations of each household (1). The global MPI has 10 indicators in three dimensions (health, education, standard of living), while the National MPI adds two, maternal health and bank account, making 12 indicators (2). Because maternal health and bank account are the two indicators NITI Aayog added, they are not common to the UNDP MPI (3 is wrong).

      Read the notes: Poverty, Hunger and Inequality