UPSC Prelims 2024 Question Paper (GS Paper I) with Answers
All 97 questions of the 2024 Civil Services Preliminary Examination, General Studies Paper I, in the official order. Each question has the official answer and an explanation; open “Answer and explanation” after you try it yourself.
Attempt Prelims 2024 as a timed testQuestions by subject in 2024
Question 1 · Science and Technology · Biotechnology
Consider the following aircraft:
- Rafale
- MiG-29
- Tejas MK-1
How many of the above are considered fifth generation fighter aircraft?
- (a) Only one
- (b) Only two
- (c) All three
- (d) None
Answer and explanation
Answer: (d) None
None of the three is a fifth-generation fighter. Fifth-generation aircraft (such as the F-22, F-35, Su-57 and J-20) combine all-aspect stealth, supercruise, sensor fusion and networked avionics. Rafale is a 4.5-generation multirole fighter, the MiG-29 is a fourth-generation fighter and Tejas Mk-1 is a 4.5-generation light combat aircraft. India's own fifth-generation project is the AMCA, still under development.
Question 3 · Indian Polity and Governance · Fundamental Rights and Duties
A Writ of Prohibition is an order issued by the Supreme Court or High Courts to :
- (a) a government officer prohibiting him from taking a particular action.
- (b) the Parliament/Legislative Assembly to pass a law on Prohibition.
- (c) the lower court prohibiting continuation of proceedings in a case.
- (d) the Government prohibiting it from following an unconstitutional policy.
Answer and explanation
Answer: (c) the lower court prohibiting continuation of proceedings in a case.
Prohibition means 'to forbid'. The writ is issued by the Supreme Court (Article 32) or a High Court (Article 226) to a lower court or tribunal to stop it from continuing proceedings in which it is exceeding its jurisdiction. Unlike certiorari, which quashes an order already passed, prohibition is preventive and lies only against judicial or quasi-judicial bodies, not against administrative or legislative authorities.
Question 4 · Economy · Economy
With reference to the Indian economy, "Collateral Borrowing and Lending Obligations" are the instruments of :
- (a) Bond market
- (b) Forex market
- (c) Money market
- (d) Stock market
Answer and explanation
Answer: (c) Money market
CBLO (Collateralised Borrowing and Lending Obligation) was a money-market instrument run by the Clearing Corporation of India (CCIL) for short-term, collateralised borrowing and lending, mainly against government securities. It has since been replaced by the Tri-party Repo system. Money-market instruments are short-term (up to one year), which distinguishes them from bond and stock markets.
Question 5 · Economy · Fiscal Policy and Budget
Consider the following statements:
Statement-I: If the United States of America (USA) were to default on its debt, holders of US Treasury Bonds will not be able to exercise their claims to receive payment.
Statement-II: The USA Government debt is not backed by any hard assets, but only by the faith of the Government.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
- (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
- (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
- (c) Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
- (d) Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
Answer and explanation
Answer: (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
Both statements are correct and the second explains the first. US Treasury bonds are backed only by the 'full faith and credit' of the US government, not by gold or other hard assets; if the government defaulted, bondholders would have no asset to seize and could not realise their claims. This is why debt-ceiling stand-offs in the US rattle world markets.
Question 6 · Modern Indian History · Freedom Struggle
With reference to the Government of India Act, 1935, consider the following statements:
- It provided for the establishment of an All India Federation based on the union of the British Indian Provinces and Princely States.
- Defence and Foreign Affairs were kept under the control of the federal legislature.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- (a) 1 only
- (b) 2 only
- (c) Both 1 and 2
- (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer and explanation
Answer: (a) 1 only
Statement 1 is correct: the Act proposed an All-India Federation of British provinces and princely states (it never came into being because enough states did not join). Statement 2 is incorrect: defence, external affairs, ecclesiastical affairs and tribal areas were 'reserved' subjects administered by the Governor-General on his own responsibility, outside the control of the federal legislature.
Question 7 · Economy · External Sector
In India, which of the following can trade in Corporate Bonds and Government Securities?
- Insurance Companies
- Pension Funds
- Retail Investors
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
- (a) 1 and 2 only
- (b) 2 and 3 only
- (c) 1 and 3 only
- (d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer and explanation
Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3
All three can trade. Insurance companies and pension funds are among the largest institutional holders of government securities and corporate bonds. Retail investors can buy government securities directly through the RBI Retail Direct scheme (2021) and trade listed corporate bonds on stock-exchange debt segments and through the NDS-OM odd-lot market.
Question 8 · Indian Polity and Governance · Executive
Who was the Provisional President of the Constituent Assembly before Dr. Rajendra Prasad took over?
- (a) C. Rajagopalachari
- (b) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
- (c) T.T. Krishnamachari
- (d) Dr. Sachchidananda Sinha
Answer and explanation
Answer: (d) Dr. Sachchidananda Sinha
At its first sitting on 9 December 1946, the Constituent Assembly elected its oldest member, Dr Sachchidananda Sinha, as temporary (provisional) President, following the French practice. Dr Rajendra Prasad was elected permanent President on 11 December 1946. H.C. Mukherjee and V.T. Krishnamachari were later elected Vice-Presidents.
Question 9 · Indian Polity and Governance · Amendments and Basic Structure
The Constitution (71st Amendment) Act, 1992 amends the Eighth Schedule to the Constitution to include which of the following languages?
- Konkani
- Manipuri
- Nepali
- Maithili
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
- (a) 1, 2 and 3
- (b) 1, 2 and 4
- (c) 1, 3 and 4
- (d) 2, 3 and 4
Answer and explanation
Answer: (a) 1, 2 and 3
The 71st Constitutional Amendment Act, 1992 added Konkani, Manipuri and Nepali to the Eighth Schedule, raising the number of languages to 18. Maithili was added later by the 92nd Amendment Act, 2003 along with Bodo, Dogri and Santhali, taking the total to the present 22.
Question 10 · Indian Polity and Governance · Parliament
As per Article 368 of the Constitution of India, the Parliament may amend any provision of the Constitution by way of:
- Addition
- Variation
- Repeal
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
- (a) 1 and 2 only
- (b) 2 and 3 only
- (c) 1 and 3 only
- (d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer and explanation
Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3
Article 368(1) states that Parliament may, in exercise of its constituent power, amend 'by way of addition, variation or repeal' any provision of the Constitution. The Kesavananda Bharati judgment (1973) limited this power by holding that the basic structure of the Constitution cannot be destroyed.
Question 11 · Environment and Ecology · Species in News
Consider the following:
- Butterflies
- Fish
- Frogs
How many of the above have poisonous species among them?
- (a) Only one
- (b) Only two
- (c) All three
- (d) None
Answer and explanation
Answer: (c) All three
All three groups contain poisonous species. Monarch butterflies store cardiac glycosides from milkweed and are toxic to predators; pufferfish carry tetrodotoxin; and poison-dart frogs secrete potent skin alkaloids. 'Poisonous' animals harm when eaten or touched, unlike 'venomous' ones, which inject toxins.
Question 12 · Geography · Indian Physiography and Drainage
Consider the following information:
Waterfall Region River 1. Dhuandhar Malwa Narmada 2. Hundru Chota Nagpur Subarnarekha 3. Gersoppa Western Ghats Netravati In how many of the above rows is the given information correctly matched?
- (a) Only one
- (b) Only two
- (c) All three
- (d) None
Answer and explanation
Answer: (a) Only one
Only one row is correct. Dhuandhar Falls is on the Narmada at Bhedaghat near Jabalpur, in the Mahakoshal region, not Malwa. Hundru Falls on the Subarnarekha near Ranchi in the Chota Nagpur plateau is correctly matched. Gersoppa (Jog) Falls in the Western Ghats is on the Sharavati river, not the Netravati.
Question 13 · Economy · External Sector
Consider the following statements:
Statement-I: India does not import apples from the United States of America.
Statement-II: In India, the law prohibits the import of Genetically Modified food without the approval of the competent authority.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
- (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
- (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
- (c) Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
- (d) Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
Answer and explanation
Answer: (d) Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
Statement-I is incorrect: India does import apples from the USA (Washington apples), and the retaliatory duty imposed in 2019 was withdrawn in 2023. Statement-II is correct: under the Food Safety and Standards Act, 2006 and the Environment (Protection) Act rules, genetically modified food cannot be imported without approval of the FSSAI and the Genetic Engineering Appraisal Committee.
Question 14 · Economy · Money and Banking
With reference to the rule/rules imposed by the Reserve Bank of India while treating foreign banks, consider the following statements:
- There is no minimum capital requirement for wholly owned banking subsidiaries in India.
- For wholly owned banking subsidiaries in India, at least 50% of the board members should be Indian nationals.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- (a) 1 only
- (b) 2 only
- (c) Both 1 and 2
- (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer and explanation
Answer: (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Both statements are incorrect. The RBI's 2013 scheme for wholly owned subsidiaries of foreign banks prescribes a minimum paid-up voting equity capital of Rs 500 crore. Its board norms are also different from the statement: a majority of directors must be non-executive, at least one-third must be independent, and at least one-third must be Indian nationals resident in India (not a flat 50 per cent).
Question 15 · Environment and Ecology · Ecology Concepts
Consider the following statements :
- Lions do not have a particular breeding season.
- Unlike most other big cats, cheetahs do not roar.
- Unlike male lions, male leopards do not proclaim their territory by scent marking.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
- (a) 1 and 2 only
- (b) 2 and 3 only
- (c) 1 and 3 only
- (d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer and explanation
Answer: (a) 1 and 2 only
Statements 1 and 2 are correct: lionesses can breed in any season, and cheetahs, which lack the specialised larynx of the Panthera genus, chirp and purr but cannot roar. Statement 3 is incorrect: male leopards, like lions, mark and advertise their territories with urine and scent marks.
Question 16 · Environment and Ecology · Climate Change
Consider the following statements:
Statement-I: The atmosphere is heated more by incoming solar radiation than by terrestrial radiation.
Statement-II: Carbon dioxide and other greenhouse gases in the atmosphere are good absorbers of long wave radiation.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
- (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
- (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
- (c) Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
- (d) Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
Answer and explanation
Answer: (d) Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
Statement-I is incorrect: the atmosphere is largely transparent to incoming short-wave solar radiation and is heated mainly from below by long-wave terrestrial radiation. Statement-II is correct: carbon dioxide, water vapour and other greenhouse gases absorb this long-wave radiation, which is the greenhouse effect. Since Statement-I is wrong, the answer is (d).
Question 17 · Geography · Physical Geography
On June 21 every year, which of the following latitude(s) experience(s) a sunlight of more than 12 hours?
- Equator
- Tropic of Cancer
- Tropic of Capricorn
- Arctic Circle
Select the correct answer using the code given below :
- (a) 1 only
- (b) 2 only
- (c) 3 and 4
- (d) 2 and 4
Answer and explanation
Answer: (d) 2 and 4
On 21 June (summer solstice in the northern hemisphere) the Sun is overhead at the Tropic of Cancer, every place north of the Equator has more than 12 hours of daylight and the Arctic Circle has 24 hours. The Equator always has about 12 hours, and the Tropic of Capricorn, in the southern hemisphere, has less than 12 hours.
Question 18 · Geography · Oceans
Which of the following is/are correct inference/inferences from isothermal maps in the month of January?.
- The isotherms deviate to the north over the ocean and to the south over the continent.
- The presence of cold ocean currents, Gulf Stream and North Atlantic Drift make the North Atlantic Ocean colder and the isotherms bend towards the north. Select the answer using the code given below :
- (a) 1 only
- (b) 2 only
- (c) Both 1 and 2
- (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer and explanation
Answer: (a) 1 only
In January the northern continents are colder than the oceans, so isotherms bend north (poleward) over the oceans and south (equatorward) over the land: statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is incorrect because the Gulf Stream and the North Atlantic Drift are warm currents; they make the North Atlantic warmer, and it is this warmth that bends the isotherms north.
Question 19 · Indian Polity and Governance · Federalism and Centre–State Relations
Consider the following statements:
- It is the Governor of the State who recognizes and declares any community of that State as a Scheduled Tribe.
- A community declared as a Scheduled Tribe in a State need not be so in another State.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- (a) 1 only
- (b) 2 only
- (c) Both 1 and 2
- (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer and explanation
Answer: (b) 2 only
Under Article 342, it is the President who, after consulting the Governor, notifies the tribes or tribal communities deemed Scheduled Tribes 'in relation to that State or Union Territory'; only Parliament can later alter the list. So statement 1 is incorrect. Statement 2 is correct: the ST list is state-specific, and a community recognised in one state may not be recognised in another.
Question 20 · Art and Culture · Festivals and Crafts
Which one of the following was the latest inclusion in the Intangible Cultural Heritage List of UNESCO ?
- (a) Chhau dance
- (b) Durga puja
- (c) Garba dance
- (d) Kumbh mela
Answer and explanation
Answer: (c) Garba dance
Garba of Gujarat was inscribed on UNESCO's Representative List of the Intangible Cultural Heritage of Humanity in December 2023, becoming India's 15th element. Kumbh Mela was inscribed in 2017, Durga Puja of Kolkata in 2021 and Chhau dance in 2010.
Question 21 · Indian Polity and Governance · Federalism and Centre–State Relations
The North Eastern Council (NEC) was established by the North Eastern Council Act, 1971. Subsequent to the amendment of NEC Act in 2002, the Council comprises which of the following members?
- Governor of the Constituent State
- Chief Minister of the Constituent State
- Three Members to be nominated by the President of India
- The Home Minister of India
Select the correct answer using the code given below :
- (a) 1, 2 and 3 only
- (b) 1, 3 and 4 only
- (c) 2 and 4 only
- (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer and explanation
Answer: (a) 1, 2 and 3 only
After the 2002 amendment the North Eastern Council consists of the Governors and Chief Ministers of the eight constituent states and three members nominated by the President. The Union Home Minister is not a member under the Act, although the government decided in 2018 that the Home Minister would be the ex-officio Chairman. Hence 1, 2 and 3 only.
Question 22 · International Relations · International Relations
Who of the following is the author of the books "The India Way" and "Why Bharat Matters"?
- (a) Bhupender Yadav
- (b) Nalin Mehta
- (c) Shashi Tharoor
- (d) Subrahmanyam Jaishankar
Answer and explanation
Answer: (d) Subrahmanyam Jaishankar
Both books are by Dr S. Jaishankar, India's External Affairs Minister. 'The India Way: Strategies for an Uncertain World' (2020) sets out his view of India's foreign-policy choices, and 'Why Bharat Matters' (2024) continues that argument.
Question 23 · Indian Society and Schemes · Society and Social Issues
With reference to Corporate Social Responsibility (CSR) rules in India, consider the following statements:
- CSR rules specify that expenditures that benefit the company directly or its employees will not be considered as CSR activities.
- CSR rules do not specify minimum spending on CSR activities.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- (a) 1 only
- (b) 2 only
- (c) Both 1 and 2
- (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer and explanation
Answer: (a) 1 only
Statement 1 is correct: under the Companies (CSR Policy) Rules, activities benefiting only the company's employees or the normal course of business do not count as CSR. Statement 2 is incorrect: Section 135 of the Companies Act, 2013 requires qualifying companies to spend at least 2 per cent of their average net profit of the preceding three years on CSR.
Question 24 · Indian Polity and Governance · Parliament
Consider the following statements regarding 'Nari Shakti Vandan Adhiniyam':
- Provisions will come into effect from the 18th Lok Sabha.
- This will be in force for 15 years after becoming an Act.
- There are provisions for the reservation of seats for Scheduled Castes Women within the quota reserved for the Scheduled Castes.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
- (a) 1, 2 and 3
- (b) 1 and 2 only
- (c) 2 and 3 only
- (d) 1 and 3 only
Answer and explanation
Answer: (c) 2 and 3 only
The Constitution (106th Amendment) Act, 2023 reserves one-third of seats for women in the Lok Sabha, state assemblies and the Delhi assembly. Statement 1 is incorrect because the reservation takes effect only after a delimitation based on the first census held after the Act commenced, not from the 18th Lok Sabha. It lasts 15 years (statement 2) and includes reservation for SC and ST women within the SC/ST quota (statement 3).
Question 25 · Geography · Physical Geography
Consider the following countries :
- Italy
- Japan
- Nigeria
- South Korea
- South Africa
Which of the above countries are frequently mentioned in the media for their low birth rates, or ageing population or declining population?
- (a) 1, 2 and 4
- (b) 1, 3 and 5
- (c) 2 and 4 only
- (d) 3 and 5 only
Answer and explanation
Answer: (a) 1, 2 and 4
Italy, Japan and South Korea are the standard examples of countries with very low fertility (South Korea's total fertility rate fell below 0.8) and rapidly ageing or shrinking populations. Nigeria and South Africa, in contrast, have young, growing populations; Nigeria has one of the highest birth rates in the world.
Question 26 · Environment and Ecology · Ecology Concepts
"Membrane Bioreactors" are often discussed in the context of:
- (a) Assisted reproductive technologies
- (b) Drug delivery nanotechnologies
- (c) Vaccine production technologies
- (d) Wastewater treatment technologies
Answer and explanation
Answer: (d) Wastewater treatment technologies
A membrane bioreactor combines biological treatment of sewage by micro-organisms (the activated-sludge process) with membrane filtration (micro- or ultrafiltration) that separates the treated water from the sludge. It produces high-quality effluent in a smaller footprint than conventional settling tanks, so it is used in wastewater treatment and water reuse.
Question 27 · Economy · Agriculture
With reference to physical capital in Indian economy, consider the following pairs:
Items Category 1. Farmer's plough Working capital 2. Computer Fixed capital 3. Yarn used by the weaver Fixed capital 4. Petrol Working capital How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
- (a) Only one
- (b) Only two
- (c) Only three
- (d) All four
Answer and explanation
Answer: (b) Only two
Fixed capital consists of durable assets used repeatedly over years (a plough, a computer); working capital is used up in a single production cycle (yarn, petrol). So pair 2 (computer, fixed) and pair 4 (petrol, working) are correct, while pair 1 (plough as working capital) and pair 3 (yarn as fixed capital) are wrong: only two pairs match.
Question 28 · Economy · External Sector
Consider the following statements :
- India is a member of the International Grains Council.
- A country needs to be a member of the International Grains Council for exporting or importing rice and wheat.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- (a) 1 only
- (b) 2 only
- (c) Both 1 and 2
- (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer and explanation
Answer: (a) 1 only
The International Grains Council is an intergovernmental body (London) that promotes cooperation and transparency in the grain, rice and oilseed trade, and India is a member. Membership is not a condition for trading: any country can export or import rice and wheat, subject to WTO rules and its own domestic regulations. Hence only statement 1 is correct.
Question 29 · Science and Technology · Biology
Which one of the following is synthesised in human body that dilates blood vessels and increases blood flow ?
- (a) Nitric oxide
- (b) Nitrous oxide
- (c) Nitrogen dioxide
- (d) Nitrogen pentoxide
Answer and explanation
Answer: (a) Nitric oxide
Nitric oxide (NO) is produced in the lining of blood vessels by the enzyme nitric oxide synthase from the amino acid arginine. It relaxes the smooth muscle of vessel walls (vasodilation), increasing blood flow and lowering blood pressure; drugs like nitroglycerin act by releasing it. Nitrous oxide is an anaesthetic gas, and the nitrogen oxides in options (c) and (d) are pollutants.
Question 30 · Science and Technology · Biology
Consider the following plants:
- Groundnut
- Horse-gram
- Soybean
How many of the above belong to the pea family?
- (a) Only one
- (b) Only two
- (c) All three
- (d) None
Answer and explanation
Answer: (c) All three
Groundnut, horse-gram and soybean are all legumes of the pea family (Fabaceae or Leguminosae), the family whose members bear seeds in pods and fix atmospheric nitrogen through Rhizobium bacteria in root nodules. All three therefore belong to the pea family.
Question 31 · Modern Indian History · Freedom Struggle
Consider the following pairs :
Party Its Leader 1. Bharatiya Jana Sangh Dr. Shyama Prasad Mukherjee 2. Socialist Party C. Rajagopalachari 3. Congress for Democracy Jagjivan Ram 4. Swatantra Party Acharya Narendra Dev How many of the above are correctly matched?
- (a) Only one
- (b) Only two
- (c) Only three
- (d) All four
Answer and explanation
Answer: (b) Only two
Pairs 1 and 3 are correct: Dr Syama Prasad Mookerjee founded the Bharatiya Jana Sangh in 1951, and Jagjivan Ram founded the Congress for Democracy in 1977. The Socialist Party was led by Acharya Narendra Dev, Jayaprakash Narayan and Ram Manohar Lohia, not C. Rajagopalachari, who founded the Swatantra Party in 1959. So only two pairs match.
Question 32 · Indian Polity and Governance · Constitution and Preamble
Which of the following is/are correctly matched in terms of equivalent rank in the three services of Indian Defence forces?
Army Airforce Navy 1. Brigadier Air Commodore Commander 2. Major General Air Vice Marshal Vice Admiral 3. Major Squadron Leader Lieutenant Commander 4. Lieutenant Colonel Group Captain Captain Select the correct answer using the code given below:
- (a) 1 and 4
- (b) 1 and 3
- (c) 2, 3 and 4
- (d) 3 only
Answer and explanation
Answer: (d) 3 only
Only pair 3 is correct: a Major in the Army ranks with a Squadron Leader and a Lieutenant Commander. A Brigadier equals an Air Commodore and a Commodore (not Commander); a Major General equals an Air Vice Marshal and a Rear Admiral (not Vice Admiral); and a Lieutenant Colonel equals a Wing Commander and a Commander (a Group Captain and a naval Captain rank with a Colonel).
Question 33 · Geography · Resources and Industry
With reference to "water vapour", which of the following statements is/are correct?
- It is a gas, the amount of which decreases with altitude.
- Its percentage is maximum at the poles. Select the answer using the code given below :
- (a) 1 only
- (b) 2 only
- (c) Both 1 and 2
- (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer and explanation
Answer: (a) 1 only
Water vapour is a variable gas whose concentration falls sharply with altitude because cooler air at height holds less moisture; statement 1 is correct. Its share of the air is highest in the warm, humid tropics (up to about 4 per cent) and lowest in the cold, dry polar regions, so statement 2 is incorrect.
Question 34 · Geography · Map-based
Which of the following countries are well known as the two largest cocoa producers in the world?
- (a) Algeria and Morocco
- (b) Botswana and Namibia
- (c) Côte d'Ivoire and Ghana
- (d) Madagascar and Mozambique
Answer and explanation
Answer: (c) Côte d'Ivoire and Ghana
Cote d'Ivoire and Ghana together produce well over half of the world's cocoa beans, with Cote d'Ivoire alone contributing about 40 per cent. The humid West African climate suits the cocoa tree, which grows in the shade of taller trees within about 20 degrees of the Equator.
Question 35 · Geography · Resources and Industry
Consider the following pairs: Country - Animal found in its natural habitat
- Brazil - Indri
- Indonesia - Elk
- Madagascar - Bonobo
How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched ?
- (a) Only one
- (b) Only two
- (c) All three
- (d) None
Answer and explanation
Answer: (d) None
None of the pairs is correct. The indri, the largest living lemur, is found only in Madagascar; the elk (moose) lives in the cold forests of North America and northern Eurasia, not tropical Indonesia; and the bonobo is an ape of the Congo Basin in the Democratic Republic of the Congo, not Madagascar.
Question 36 · Science and Technology · Space
With reference to radioisotope thermoelectric generators (RTGs), consider the following statements:
- RTGs are miniature fission reactors.
- RTGs are used for powering the onboard systems of spacecrafts.
- RTGs can use Plutonium-238, which is a by-product of weapons development.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
- (a) 1 and 2 only
- (b) 2 and 3 only
- (c) 1 and 3 only
- (d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer and explanation
Answer: (b) 2 and 3 only
Statement 1 is incorrect: an RTG has no chain reaction; it converts the heat of natural radioactive decay into electricity through thermocouples. Statement 2 is correct: RTGs have powered the Voyager, Cassini, Curiosity and Perseverance missions where sunlight is too weak for solar panels. Statement 3 is correct: plutonium-238 is made from neptunium-237, a by-product of the nuclear-weapons fuel cycle.
Question 37 · Science and Technology · Biotechnology
Consider the following:
- Battery storage
- Biomass generators
- Fuel cells
- Rooftop solar photovoltaic units
How many of the above are considered "Distributed Energy Resources"?
- (a) Only one
- (b) Only two
- (c) Only three
- (d) All four
Answer and explanation
Answer: (d) All four
Distributed energy resources are small-scale generation or storage units located near the point of use rather than at a central power station: rooftop solar PV, battery storage, fuel cells and small biomass generators all qualify, as do electric-vehicle chargers and demand-response. All four are therefore distributed energy resources.
Question 38 · Indian Polity and Governance · Judiciary
Under which of the following Articles of the Constitution of India, has the Supreme Court of India placed the Right to Privacy?
- (a) Article 15
- (b) Article 16
- (c) Article 19
- (d) Article 21
Answer and explanation
Answer: (d) Article 21
In Justice K.S. Puttaswamy v. Union of India (2017), a nine-judge bench of the Supreme Court unanimously held that the right to privacy is a fundamental right intrinsic to the right to life and personal liberty under Article 21, and also flows from the freedoms in Part III as a whole.
Question 39 · International Relations · International Relations
Which of the following statements about 'Exercise Mitra Shakti-2023' are correct?
- This was a joint military exercise between India and Bangladesh.
- It commenced in Aundh (Pune).
- Joint response during counter-terrorism operations was a goal of this operation.
- Indian Air Force was a part of this exercise. Select the answer using the code given below :
- (a) 1, 2 and 3
- (b) 1, 2 and 4
- (c) 1, 3 and 4
- (d) 2, 3 and 4
Answer and explanation
Answer: (d) 2, 3 and 4
Statement 1 is incorrect: Mitra Shakti is the joint military exercise between India and Sri Lanka; its ninth edition (November 2023) was held at Aundh, Pune (statement 2). It practised joint sub-conventional and counter-terrorism operations under the UN Charter (statement 3), and for the first time the Indian Air Force and Sri Lanka Air Force took part alongside the armies (statement 4). Hence 2, 3 and 4.
Question 40 · Environment and Ecology · Climate Change
According to the Environmental Protection Agency (EPA), which one of the following is the largest source of sulphur dioxide emissions?
- (a) Locomotives using fossil fuels
- (b) Ships using fossil fuels
- (c) Extraction of metals from ores
- (d) Power plants using fossil fuels
Answer and explanation
Answer: (d) Power plants using fossil fuels
According to the US Environmental Protection Agency, the largest source of sulphur dioxide in the atmosphere is the burning of fossil fuels, especially coal, by power plants and other industrial facilities. Smaller sources include metal smelting, locomotives, ships and heavy equipment that burn high-sulphur fuel.
Question 41 · Indian Polity and Governance · Parliament
With reference to the Parliament of India, consider the following statements :
- Prorogation of a House by the President of India does not require the advice of the Council of Ministers.
- Prorogation of a House is generally done after the House is adjourned sine die but there is no bar to the President of India prorogating the House which is in session.
- Dissolution of the Lok Sabha is done by the President of India who, save in exceptional circumstances, does so on the advice of the Council of Ministers.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- (a) 1 only
- (b) 1 and 2
- (c) 2 and 3
- (d) 3 only
Answer and explanation
Answer: (c) 2 and 3
Statement 1 is incorrect: the President prorogues a House on the advice of the Council of Ministers, as with other executive functions under Article 74. Statement 2 is correct: prorogation normally follows adjournment sine die, but the Constitution does not bar the President from proroguing a House that is in session. Statement 3 is correct: dissolution of the Lok Sabha is ordered by the President, ordinarily on ministerial advice. Hence 2 and 3.
Question 42 · Environment and Ecology · Species in News
Consider the following:
- Carabid beetles
- Centipedes
- Flies
- Termites
- Wasps Parasitoid species are found in how many of the above kind of organisms?
- (a) Only two
- (b) Only three
- (c) Only four
- (d) All five
Answer and explanation
Answer: (b) Only three
A parasitoid lives on or in a single host and eventually kills it. Parasitoid species occur among wasps (ichneumon and braconid wasps), flies (tachinid flies) and some carabid (ground) beetles whose larvae parasitise other insects. Centipedes are free-living predators and termites are social wood-feeders, so neither includes parasitoids. Hence only three.
Question 43 · Environment and Ecology · Ecology Concepts
With reference to perfluoroalkyl and polyfluoroalkyl substances (PFAS) that are used in making many consumer products, consider the following statements :
- PFAS are found to be widespread in drinking water, food and food packaging materials.
- PFAS are not easily degraded in the environment.
- Persistent exposure to PFAS can lead to bioaccumulation in animal bodies.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
- (a) 1 and 2 only
- (b) 2 and 3 only
- (c) 1 and 3 only
- (d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer and explanation
Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3
PFAS, the 'forever chemicals' used in non-stick cookware, water-repellent fabrics, fire-fighting foams and food packaging, have carbon-fluorine bonds that resist natural breakdown (statement 2). They are widely detected in drinking water, food and packaging (statement 1) and build up in the tissues of animals and humans with continued exposure (statement 3). All three statements are correct.
Question 44 · Geography · Map-based
The longest border between any two countries in the world is between :
- (a) Canada and the United States of America
- (b) Chile and Argentina
- (c) China and India
- (d) Kazakhstan and Russian Federation
Answer and explanation
Answer: (a) Canada and the United States of America
The Canada-United States border, about 8,890 km long including the Alaska-Yukon stretch, is the longest international border between two countries. The Kazakhstan-Russia border, roughly 7,600 km, is the longest continuous land border; the Argentina-Chile and India-China borders are much shorter.
Question 45 · Science and Technology · Biology
Consider the following activities:
- Identification of narcotics on passengers at airports or in aircraft
- Monitoring of precipitation
- Tracking the migration of animals In how many of the above activities can the radars be used?
- (a) Only one
- (b) Only two
- (c) All three
- (d) None
Answer and explanation
Answer: (b) Only two
Weather radars measure precipitation by the echo returned from raindrops and hail, and ornithologists use radar to track flocks of migrating birds and insects; so activities 2 and 3 use radar. Narcotics on passengers are detected by X-ray and millimetre-wave body scanners, sniffer dogs and ion-mobility spectrometry, not by radar. Hence only two.
Question 46 · Economy · Agriculture
The total fertility rate in an economy is defined as:
- (a) the number of children born per 1000 people in the population in a year.
- (b) the number of children born to a couple in their lifetime in a given population.
- (c) the birth rate minus death rate.
- (d) the average number of live births a woman would have by the end of her child-bearing age.
Answer and explanation
Answer: (d) the average number of live births a woman would have by the end of her child-bearing age.
The total fertility rate is the average number of live births a woman would have over her reproductive span (15-49 years) if she experienced the current age-specific fertility rates. A TFR of about 2.1 is the replacement level; India's TFR fell to 2.0 in NFHS-5 (2019-21). Option (a) describes the crude birth rate and option (c) the natural growth rate.
Question 47 · Modern Indian History · History
Consider the following information:
Archaeological Site State Description 1. Chandraketugarh Odisha Trading Port town 2. Inamgaon Maharashtra Chalcolithic site 3. Mangadu Kerala Megalithic site 4. Salihundam Andhra Pradesh Rock-cut cave shrines In which of the above rows is the given information correctly matched ?
- (a) 1 and 2
- (b) 2 and 3
- (c) 3 and 4
- (d) 1 and 4
Answer and explanation
Answer: (b) 2 and 3
Rows 2 and 3 are correct: Inamgaon in Maharashtra is a Chalcolithic (Jorwe culture) site, and Mangadu in Kerala is a megalithic site. Chandraketugarh, an ancient trading port town, is in West Bengal, not Odisha, and Salihundam in Andhra Pradesh is a Buddhist site of stupas and monasteries, not rock-cut cave shrines.
Question 48 · Geography · Oceans
Consider the following countries :
- Finland
- Germany
- Norway
- Russia
How many of the above countries have a border with the North Sea?
- (a) Only one
- (b) Only two
- (c) Only three
- (d) All four
Answer and explanation
Answer: (b) Only two
Germany and Norway have coastlines on the North Sea. Finland's coast is on the Baltic Sea (Gulf of Bothnia and Gulf of Finland), and Russia borders the Baltic, Black, Caspian and Arctic seas but not the North Sea. Hence only two.
Question 49 · Indian Polity and Governance · Parliament
With reference to the Speaker of the Lok Sabha, consider the following statements : While any resolution for the removal of the Speaker of the Lok Sabha is under consideration
- He/She shall not preside.
- He/She shall not have the right to speak.
- He/She shall not be entitled to vote on the resolution in the first instance.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- (a) 1 only
- (b) 1 and 2 only
- (c) 2 and 3 only
- (d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer and explanation
Answer: (a) 1 only
Under Article 96, while a resolution for the Speaker's removal is under consideration the Speaker shall not preside (statement 1), but is entitled to speak in and take part in the proceedings of the House and to vote in the first instance, though not in the case of an equality of votes. So statements 2 and 3 are incorrect and only 1 is correct.
Question 50 · Geography · Oceans
Consider the following statements:
Statement-I: Sumed pipeline is a strategic route for Persian Gulf oil and natural gas shipments to Europe.
Statement-II: Sumed pipeline connects the Red Sea with the Mediterranean Sea.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
- (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
- (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
- (c) Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
- (d) Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
Answer and explanation
Answer: (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
The SUMED (Suez-Mediterranean) pipeline runs from Ain Sukhna on the Gulf of Suez (Red Sea) to Sidi Kerir on the Mediterranean near Alexandria. It lets Persian Gulf crude reach Europe without passing through the Suez Canal, so both statements are correct and Statement-II explains why it is a strategic route.
Question 51 · Indian Polity and Governance · Local Government
Which of the following statements are correct about the Constitution of India?
- Powers of the Municipalities are given in Part IX A of the Constitution.
- Emergency provisions are given in Part XVIII of the Constitution.
- Provisions related to the amendment of the Constitution are given in Part XX of the Constitution Select the answer using the code given below:
- (a) 1 and 2 only
- (b) 2 and 3 only
- (c) 1 and 3 only
- (d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer and explanation
Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3
All three statements are correct. Part IX-A (Articles 243P-243ZG), inserted by the 74th Amendment Act, 1992, deals with municipalities; Part XVIII (Articles 352-360) contains the emergency provisions; and Part XX, consisting of Article 368, deals with amendment of the Constitution.
Question 52 · Indian Polity and Governance · Constitution and Preamble
What are the duties of the Chief of Defence Staff (CDS) as Head of the Department of Military Affairs?
- Permanent Chairman of Chiefs of Staff Committee
- Exercise military command over the three Service Chiefs
- Principal Military Advisor to Defence Minister on all tri-service matters
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
- (a) 1, 2 and 3
- (b) 1 and 2 only
- (c) 2 and 3 only
- (d) 1 and 3 only
Answer and explanation
Answer: (d) 1 and 3 only
The CDS, created in 2019, is the Permanent Chairman of the Chiefs of Staff Committee and the Principal Military Adviser to the Defence Minister on all tri-service matters, besides heading the Department of Military Affairs. The CDS does not exercise military command over the three Service Chiefs or their forces; each Chief continues to command his own service. Hence 1 and 3 only.
Question 53 · Art and Culture · Literature and Philosophy
Sanghabhuti, an Indian Buddhist monk, who travelled to China at the end of the fourth century AD, was the author of a commentary on :
- (a) Prajnaparamita Sutra
- (b) Visuddhimagga
- (c) Sarvastivada Vinaya
- (d) Lalitavistara
Answer and explanation
Answer: (c) Sarvastivada Vinaya
Sanghabhuti (Sanghabhadra) travelled from India to China around 381 AD and worked there as a translator. He is credited with a commentary on the Vinaya (monastic rules) of the Sarvastivada school, one of the major early Buddhist schools whose texts were widely translated into Chinese.
Question 54 · Economy · Agriculture
With reference to the sectors of the Indian economy, consider the following pairs:
Economic activity Sector 1. Storage of agricultural produce Secondary 2. Dairy farm Primary 3. Mineral exploration Tertiary 4. Weaving cloth Secondary How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?
- (a) Only one
- (b) Only two
- (c) Only three
- (d) All four
Answer and explanation
Answer: (b) Only two
Two pairs are correct. A dairy farm is a primary activity (it draws directly on nature) and weaving cloth is a secondary (manufacturing) activity. Storage of agricultural produce is a service and therefore tertiary, not secondary; mineral exploration and extraction is a primary activity, not tertiary.
Question 55 · Indian Polity and Governance · Parliament
Which of the following statements about the Ethics Committee in the Lok Sabha are correct?
- Initially it was an ad-hoc Committee.
- Only a Member of the Lok Sabha can make a complaint relating to unethical conduct of a member of the Lok Sabha.
- This Committee cannot take up any matter which is sub-judice. Select the answer using the code given below :
- (a) 1 and 2 only
- (b) 2 and 3 only
- (c) 1 and 3 only
- (d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer and explanation
Answer: (c) 1 and 3 only
The Ethics Committee of the Lok Sabha was first set up as an ad hoc committee in 2000 and made a permanent standing committee in 2015 (statement 1). Any person, not only an MP, may complain against a member's unethical conduct, though the complaint must be forwarded through a member (statement 2 incorrect). The Committee does not take up matters that are sub judice (statement 3). Hence 1 and 3.
Question 56 · Geography · Physical Geography
Consider the following airports:
- Donyi Polo Airport
- Kushinagar International Airport
- Vijayawada International Airport In the recent past, which of the above have been constructed as Greenfield projects?
- (a) 1 and 2 only
- (b) 2 and 3 only
- (c) 1 and 3 only
- (d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer and explanation
Answer: (a) 1 and 2 only
Donyi Polo Airport at Itanagar (2022) and Kushinagar International Airport in Uttar Pradesh (2021) were built as greenfield airports on fresh sites. Vijayawada Airport at Gannavaram is an old airport that was upgraded and given international status in 2017, not a greenfield project. Hence 1 and 2 only.
Question 57 · Indian Society and Schemes · Social Schemes
With reference to the 'Pradhan Mantri Surakshit Matritva Abhiyan', consider the following statements:
- This scheme guarantees a minimum package of antenatal care services to women in their second and third trimesters of pregnancy and six months post-delivery health care service in any government health facility.
- Under this scheme, private sector health care providers of certain specialities can volunteer to provide services at nearby government health facilities.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- (a) 1 only
- (b) 2 only
- (c) Both 1 and 2
- (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer and explanation
Answer: (b) 2 only
Under PMSMA (2016), government doctors and volunteer private doctors provide free, assured antenatal check-ups on the 9th of every month to women in their second and third trimesters; it does not cover six months of post-delivery care, so statement 1 is incorrect. Statement 2 is correct: private obstetricians, physicians and radiologists can volunteer to serve at nearby government facilities.
Question 58 · Indian Society and Schemes · Society and Social Issues
Which one of the following is the correct description of "100 Million Farmers"?
- (a) It is a platform for accelerating the transition towards food and water systems that are net-zero (carbon), nature-positive and that aims to increase farmer resilience.
- (b) It is an international alliance and a network of individuals and farming organisations interested in supporting and strengthening the development of the organic animal husbandry.
- (c) It is a digital platform fully integrated with service providers and built on blockchain that lets buyers, sellers and third parties trade fertilizers quickly and securely.
- (d) It is a platform with the mission of encouraging the farmers to form Farmer Product Organisations or Agribusiness Consortiums, thus facilitating the access to global open markets to sell their products.
Answer and explanation
Answer: (a) It is a platform for accelerating the transition towards food and water systems that are net-zero (carbon), nature-positive and that aims to increase farmer resilience.
'100 Million Farmers' is a multi-stakeholder platform launched by the World Economic Forum to speed up the transition to food and water systems that are net-zero in carbon and nature-positive, while raising farmers' incomes and resilience. Option (b) describes an organic-livestock alliance, (c) a fertiliser-trading platform and (d) an FPO-promotion effort.
Question 59 · Indian Society and Schemes · Society and Social Issues
Consider the following statements regarding World Toilet Organization :
- It is one of the agencies of the United Nations.
- World Toilet Summit, World Toilet Day and World Toilet College are the initiatives of this organization, to inspire action to tackle the global sanitation crisis.
- The main focus of its function is to grant funds to the least developed countries and developing countries to achieve the end of open defecation.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- (a) 2 only
- (b) 3 only
- (c) 1 and 2
- (d) 2 and 3
Answer and explanation
Answer: (a) 2 only
The World Toilet Organization is a Singapore-based non-profit, not a UN agency, so statement 1 is incorrect. It founded the World Toilet Summit, World Toilet Day (19 November, later adopted by the UN) and the World Toilet College, so statement 2 is correct. It advocates and builds capacity rather than granting funds to governments, so statement 3 is incorrect. Hence 2 only.
Question 60 · Geography · Climate and Monsoon
With reference to "Coriolis force", which of the following statements is/are correct?
- It increases with increase in wind velocity.
- It is maximum at the poles and is absent at the equator. Select the answer using the code given below :
- (a) 1 only
- (b) 2 only
- (c) Both 1 and 2
- (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer and explanation
Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2
The Coriolis force, which deflects moving air to the right in the northern hemisphere and to the left in the southern, is proportional to the speed of the wind and to the sine of the latitude. It is therefore zero at the Equator and greatest at the poles, which is why tropical cyclones do not form within about 5 degrees of the Equator. Both statements are correct.
Question 61 · Indian Polity and Governance · Parliament
With reference to Union Budget, consider the following statements :
- The Union Finance Minister on behalf of the President lays the Annual Financial Statement before both the Houses of Parliament.
- At the Union level, no demand for a grant can be made except on the recommendation of the President of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- (a) 1 only
- (b) 2 only
- (c) Both 1 and 2
- (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer and explanation
Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2
Article 112 requires the President to cause the Annual Financial Statement to be laid before both Houses; in practice the Finance Minister presents it on the President's behalf (statement 1). Article 113(3) provides that no demand for a grant can be made except on the recommendation of the President (statement 2). Both statements are correct.
Question 62 · Environment and Ecology · Climate Change
One of the following regions has the world's largest tropical peatland, which holds about three years worth of global carbon emissions from fossil fuels; and the possible destruction of which can exert detrimental effect on the global climate. Which one of the following denotes that region?
- (a) Amazon Basin
- (b) Congo Basin
- (c) Kikori Basin
- (d) Rio de la Plata Basin
Answer and explanation
Answer: (b) Congo Basin
The Cuvette Centrale peatlands of the Congo Basin, straddling the Republic of Congo and the Democratic Republic of the Congo, are the world's largest tropical peatland complex, storing roughly 30 billion tonnes of carbon, about three years of global fossil-fuel emissions. Drainage, logging or oil exploration there would release this carbon.
Question 63 · Science and Technology · Biology
Recently, the term "pumped-storage hydropower" is actually and appropriately discussed in the context of which one of the following?
- (a) Irrigation of terraced crop fields
- (b) Lift irrigation of cereal crops
- (c) Long duration energy storage
- (d) Rainwater harvesting system
Answer and explanation
Answer: (c) Long duration energy storage
Pumped-storage hydropower pumps water from a lower to an upper reservoir when electricity is cheap or surplus (for example from solar at midday) and releases it through turbines when demand is high. It is the most widely used form of long-duration grid energy storage and is being promoted in India to balance renewable power.
Question 64 · Geography · Oceans
Consider the following statements:
Statement-I: Thickness of the troposphere at the equator is much greater as compared to poles.
Statement-II: At the equator, heat is transported to great heights by strong convectional currents.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
- (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
- (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
- (c) Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
- (d) Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
Answer and explanation
Answer: (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
The troposphere is about 16-18 km thick at the Equator but only about 8 km at the poles. The difference arises because intense heating at the Equator drives strong convection currents that carry heat and air to great heights, pushing the tropopause upward. Both statements are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I.
Question 65 · Economy · Money and Banking
Consider the following statements in respect of the digital rupee :
- It is a sovereign currency issued by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) in alignment with its monetary policy.
- It appears as a liability on the RBI's balance sheet.
- It is insured against inflation by its very design.
- It is freely convertible against commercial bank money and cash.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
- (a) 1 and 2 only
- (b) 1 and 3 only
- (c) 2 and 4 only
- (d) 1, 2 and 4
Answer and explanation
Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 4
The e-rupee (CBDC) is legal tender issued by the RBI in line with its monetary policy (statement 1), is shown as a liability on the RBI's balance sheet like currency notes (statement 2) and is exchangeable at par with bank deposits and cash (statement 4). It carries no interest or inflation protection; its purchasing power falls with inflation like cash, so statement 3 is incorrect. Hence 1, 2 and 4.
Question 66 · Modern Indian History · History
Consider the following statements:
- There are no parables in Upanishads.
- Upanishads were composed earlier than the Puranas.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- (a) 1 only
- (b) 2 only
- (c) Both 1 and 2
- (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer and explanation
Answer: (b) 2 only
The Upanishads use dialogues and parables to teach philosophy, for instance the stories of Satyakama Jabala, Nachiketa and Uddalaka's lesson with the banyan seed in the Chandogya Upanishad, so statement 1 is incorrect. The principal Upanishads (c. 800-500 BC) are older than the Puranas, which were compiled mostly in the Gupta period and later, so statement 2 is correct.
Question 67 · Geography · Oceans
Consider the following statements :
- The Red Sea receives very little precipitation in any form.
- No water enters the Red Sea from rivers.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- (a) 1 only
- (b) 2 only
- (c) Both 1 and 2
- (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer and explanation
Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2
The Red Sea lies between the Sahara and Arabian deserts and receives very little rainfall (statement 1). No permanent river flows into it, so inflow comes only from the Indian Ocean through the Bab-el-Mandeb strait; this, with high evaporation, makes it one of the saltiest seas in the world (statement 2). Both statements are correct.
Question 68 · International Relations · International Relations
Consider the following statements :
Statement-I: There is instability and worsening security situation in the Sahel region.
Statement-II: There have been military takeovers/coups d'état in several countries of the Sahel region in the recent past.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
- (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-I Statement-II explains
- (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
- (c) Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
- (d) Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
Answer and explanation
Answer: (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-I Statement-II explains
The Sahel, the semi-arid belt south of the Sahara, has seen jihadist insurgencies, ethnic violence and a collapse of security, and this instability has been driven by, and has in turn produced, military coups in Mali (2020, 2021), Chad (2021), Burkina Faso (2022) and Niger (2023). Both statements are correct and the coups explain the worsening security situation.
Question 69 · Science and Technology · Health
In which of the following are hydrogels used ?
- Controlled drug delivery in patients
- Mobile air-conditioning systems
- Preparation of industrial lubricants
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
- (a) 1 only
- (b) 1 and 2 only
- (c) 2 and 3 only
- (d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer and explanation
Answer: (a) 1 only
Hydrogels are three-dimensional networks of hydrophilic polymers that hold large amounts of water. Their biocompatibility and tunable release make them useful for controlled drug delivery, wound dressings, contact lenses and tissue engineering. They are not used in mobile air-conditioning or as industrial lubricants. Hence 1 only.
Question 70 · Geography · Indian Physiography and Drainage
With reference to the Himalayan rivers joining the Ganga downstream of Prayagraj from West to East, which one of the following sequences is correct?
- (a) Ghaghara – Gomati – Gandak – Kosi
- (b) Gomati - Ghaghara – Gandak – Kosi
- (c) Ghaghara – Gomati – Kosi – Gandak
- (d) Gomati - Ghaghara - Kosi - Gandak
Answer and explanation
Answer: (b) Gomati - Ghaghara – Gandak – Kosi
Moving east from Prayagraj, the left-bank (Himalayan and plains) tributaries join the Ganga in the order Gomati (near Ghazipur), Ghaghara (near Chhapra), Gandak (near Patna) and Kosi (near Kursela in Bihar). Gomati is strictly a plains-fed river, but the sequence asked for is Gomati-Ghaghara-Gandak-Kosi.
Question 71 · Economy · Money and Banking
Consider the following:
- Exchange-Traded Funds (ETF)
- Motor vehicles
- Currency swap
Which of the above is/are considered financial instruments?
- (a) 1 only
- (b) 2 and 3 only
- (c) 1, 2 and 3
- (d) 1 and 3 only
Answer and explanation
Answer: (d) 1 and 3 only
A financial instrument is a tradable contract that represents a monetary claim: exchange-traded funds (units of a fund traded on an exchange) and currency swaps (derivative contracts exchanging cash flows in two currencies) both qualify. A motor vehicle is a physical, real asset, not a financial instrument. Hence 1 and 3 only.
Question 72 · Art and Culture · Architecture
Consider the following properties included in the World Heritage List released by UNESCO:
- Shantiniketan
- Rani-ki-Vav
- Sacred Ensembles of the Hoysalas
- Mahabodhi Temple Complex at Bodhgaya
How many of the above properties were included in 2023?
- (a) Only one
- (b) Only two
- (c) Only three
- (d) All four
Answer and explanation
Answer: (b) Only two
Shantiniketan (West Bengal) and the Sacred Ensembles of the Hoysalas (Belur, Halebidu and Somanathapura in Karnataka) were inscribed on the UNESCO World Heritage List in September 2023. Rani-ki-Vav at Patan was inscribed in 2014 and the Mahabodhi Temple Complex at Bodh Gaya in 2002. Hence only two.
Question 73 · Science and Technology · Biology
Which one of the following words/phrases is most appropriately used to denote "an interoperable network of 3D virtual worlds that can be accessed simultaneously by millions of users, who can exert property rights over virtual items"?
- (a) Big data analytics
- (b) Cryptography
- (c) Metaverse
- (d) Virtual matrix
Answer and explanation
Answer: (c) Metaverse
The metaverse is the term for a persistent, interoperable network of 3D virtual worlds used simultaneously by many people, with ownership of virtual goods often recorded through NFTs and blockchains. Big-data analytics and cryptography are techniques, not virtual worlds, and 'virtual matrix' is not a recognised term.
Question 74 · Science and Technology · Defence and Nuclear
Consider the following statements:
Statement-I: Giant stars live much longer than dwarf stars.
Statement-II: Compared to dwarf stars, giant stars have a greater rate of nuclear reactions.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
- (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
- (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
- (c) Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
- (d) Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
Answer and explanation
Answer: (d) Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
Massive giant stars burn their hydrogen far faster because the greater gravitational pressure raises core temperatures and the rate of nuclear fusion, so they live only millions of years, whereas small dwarf stars live for billions. Statement-I is therefore incorrect and Statement-II is correct.
Question 75 · Environment and Ecology · Pollution
Consider the following statements :
Statement-I: Many chewing gums found in the market are considered a source of environmental pollution.
Statement-II: Many chewing gums contain plastic as gum base.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
- (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
- (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
- (c) Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
- (d) Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
Answer and explanation
Answer: (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
Most commercial chewing gums use a synthetic 'gum base' of petroleum-derived polymers such as polyvinyl acetate and polyisobutylene, in effect plastic, which does not biodegrade; discarded gum therefore persists as litter and microplastic. Both statements are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I.
Question 76 · Science and Technology · Physics
Which one of the following is the exhaust pipe emission from Fuel Cell Electric Vehicles, powered by hydrogen?
- (a) Hydrogen peroxide
- (b) Hydronium
- (c) Oxygen
- (d) Water vapour
Answer and explanation
Answer: (d) Water vapour
In a hydrogen fuel-cell vehicle, hydrogen from the tank combines with oxygen from the air in the fuel cell to generate electricity for the motor; the only by-product is water, which leaves the tailpipe as water vapour. There are no carbon dioxide or nitrogen-oxide emissions at the vehicle.
Question 77 · Indian Society and Schemes · Social Schemes
With reference to the Pradhan Mantri Shram Yogi Maan-dhan (PM-SYM) Yojana, consider the following statements:
- The entry age group for enrolment in the scheme is 21 to 40 years.
- Age specific contribution shall be made by the beneficiary.
- Each subscriber under the scheme shall receive a minimum pension of ₹ 3,000 per month after attaining the age of 60 years.
- Family pension is applicable to the spouse and unmarried daughters.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- (a) 1,3 and 4
- (b) 2 and 3 only
- (c) 2 only
- (d) 1, 2 and 4
Answer and explanation
Answer: (b) 2 and 3 only
PM-SYM (2019) is a voluntary pension scheme for unorganised workers earning up to Rs 15,000 a month. The entry age is 18 to 40 years (statement 1 incorrect); the subscriber pays an age-specific monthly contribution matched by the government (statement 2 correct); and a pension of Rs 3,000 a month is assured after age 60 (statement 3 correct). Family pension of 50 per cent goes only to the spouse, not to daughters (statement 4 incorrect). Hence 2 and 3 only.
Question 78 · Indian Polity and Governance · Constitutional Bodies
How many Delimitation Commissions have been constituted by the Government of India till December 2023?
- (a) One
- (b) Two
- (c) Three
- (d) Four
Answer and explanation
Answer: (d) Four
Delimitation Commissions have been constituted four times, under the Delimitation Commission Acts of 1952, 1962, 1972 and 2002, following the censuses of 1951, 1961, 1971 and 2001. The 42nd Amendment froze constituency numbers until the 2001 census and the 84th Amendment extended the freeze until the first census after 2026.
Question 79 · Modern Indian History · History
Who of the following rulers of medieval India gave permission to the Portuguese to build a fort at Bhatkal?
- (a) Krishnadevaraya
- (b) Narasimha Saluva
- (c) Muhammad Shah III
- (d) Yusuf Adil Shah
Answer and explanation
Answer: (a) Krishnadevaraya
In 1510 Krishnadevaraya of Vijayanagara, who valued the Portuguese as suppliers of horses and firearms, permitted Afonso de Albuquerque to build a fort at Bhatkal on the Kanara coast. The Portuguese took Goa from the Bijapur sultan Yusuf Adil Shah in the same year.
Question 80 · Indian Polity and Governance · Constitution and Preamble
Which one of the following statements is correct as per the Constitution of India?
- (a) Inter-State trade and commerce is a State subject under the State List.
- (b) Inter-State migration is a State subject under the State List.
- (c) Inter-State quarantine is a Union subject under the Union List.
- (d) Corporation tax is a State subject under the State List.
Answer and explanation
Answer: (c) Inter-State quarantine is a Union subject under the Union List.
Inter-State quarantine is entry 29 of the Union List, so option (c) is correct. Inter-State trade and commerce (entry 42) and inter-State migration (entry 81) are also Union subjects, and corporation tax (entry 85) is a Union tax, so the other three options are wrong.
Question 82 · Geography · Physical Geography
Consider the following information :
Region Name of the mountain range Type of mountain - - - 1. Central Asia Vosges Fold mountain 2. Europe Alps Block mountain 3. North America Appalachians Fold mountain 4. South America Andes Fold mountain In how many of the above rows is the given information correctly matched?
- (a) Only one
- (b) Only two
- (c) Only three
- (d) All four
Answer and explanation
Answer: (b) Only two
Only rows 3 and 4 are correct: the Appalachians of North America and the Andes of South America are fold mountains. The Vosges are block mountains in eastern France, not Central Asia, and the Alps are young fold mountains, not block mountains. Hence only two.
Question 83 · Indian Society and Schemes · Social Schemes
With reference to the Digital India Land Records Modernisation Programme, consider the following statements :
- To implement the scheme, the Central Government provides 100% funding.
- Under the Scheme, Cadastral Maps are digitised.
- An initiative has been undertaken to transliterate the Records of Rights from local language to any of the languages recognized by the Constitution of India.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
- (a) 1 and 2 only
- (b) 2 and 3 only
- (c) 1 and 3 only
- (d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer and explanation
Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3
DILRMP has been a central sector scheme with 100 per cent central funding since 2016 (statement 1). Its components include computerisation of land records and digitisation of cadastral maps (statement 2). Since 2022 the records of rights are being transliterated from local languages into any of the 22 scheduled languages using the Bhashini platform (statement 3). All three are correct.
Question 84 · Indian Society and Schemes · Society and Social Issues
Operations undertaken by the Army towards upliftment of the local population in remote areas to include addressing of their basic needs is called:
- (a) Operation Sankalp
- (b) Operation Maitri
- (c) Operation Sadbhavana
- (d) Operation Madad
Answer and explanation
Answer: (c) Operation Sadbhavana
Operation Sadbhavana is the Indian Army's civic-action programme in Jammu and Kashmir, Ladakh and the North-East that runs schools, medical camps, infrastructure and skill projects to meet the basic needs of people in remote areas. Operation Maitri was the 2015 Nepal earthquake relief, Operation Madad the 2018 Kerala flood relief and Operation Sankalp the naval mission in the Gulf.
Question 85 · Art and Culture · Festivals and Crafts
Which one of the following is a work attributed to playwright Bhasa?
- (a) Kavyalankara
- (b) Natyashastra
- (c) Madhyama-vyayoga
- (d) Mahabhashya
Answer and explanation
Answer: (c) Madhyama-vyayoga
Madhyama-vyayoga, a one-act play based on an episode of the Mahabharata involving Bhima and Ghatotkacha, is one of the thirteen Sanskrit plays attributed to Bhasa, the dramatist who preceded Kalidasa. The Natyashastra is Bharata's treatise on drama, the Mahabhashya is Patanjali's grammar commentary and Kavyalankara is Bhamaha's work on poetics.
Question 86 · Geography · Physical Geography
Consider the following :
- Cashew
- Papaya
- Red sanders
How many of the above trees are actually native to India?
- (a) Only one
- (b) Only two
- (c) All three
- (d) None
Answer and explanation
Answer: (a) Only one
Only red sanders (Pterocarpus santalinus), confined to the Seshachalam hills of Andhra Pradesh, is native to India. Cashew and papaya are both native to tropical America and were introduced to India by the Portuguese in the sixteenth century. Hence only one.
Question 87 · Environment and Ecology · Species in News
Which one of the following shows a unique relationship with an insect that has coevolved with it and that is the only insect that can pollinate this tree?
- (a) Fig
- (b) Mahua
- (c) Sandalwood
- (d) Silk cotton
Answer and explanation
Answer: (a) Fig
Each fig species is pollinated by its own species of tiny fig wasp, which enters the enclosed inflorescence (syconium) to lay eggs and pollinates the flowers inside; the wasp can breed nowhere else. This obligate mutualism, evolved over tens of millions of years, is a classic example of coevolution.
Question 88 · International Relations · Global Groupings
Consider the following pairs : Country
- - 1. Argentina Worst economic crisis 2. Sudan War between the country's regular army and paramilitary forces 3. Turkey Rescinded its membership of NATO How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?
- (a) Only one pair
- (b) Only two pairs
- (c) All three pairs
- (d) None of the pairs
Answer and explanation
Answer: (b) Only two pairs
Argentina suffered one of its worst economic crises in 2023, with inflation above 200 per cent (pair 1 correct). Sudan has been at war since April 2023 between the Sudanese Armed Forces and the paramilitary Rapid Support Forces (pair 2 correct). Turkey remains a NATO member and has not withdrawn (pair 3 incorrect). Hence only two pairs.
Question 90 · Economy · Money and Banking
Consider the following statements:
- In India, Non-Banking Financial Companies can access the Liquidity Adjustment Facility window of the Reserve Bank of India.
- In India, Foreign Institutional Investors can hold the Government Securities (G-Secs).
- In India, Stock Exchanges can offer separate trading platforms for debts.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- (a) 1 and 2 only
- (b) 3 only
- (c) 1, 2 and 3
- (d) 2 and 3 only
Answer and explanation
Answer: (c) 1, 2 and 3
Standalone primary dealers, which are NBFCs registered with the RBI, are eligible participants in the Liquidity Adjustment Facility, so statement 1 is correct. Foreign portfolio investors may hold government securities within prescribed limits and freely under the Fully Accessible Route (statement 2), and the NSE and BSE run separate debt-trading platforms (statement 3). Hence 1, 2 and 3.
Question 91 · Geography · Physical Geography
Consider the following:
- Pyroclastic debris
- Ash and dust
- Nitrogen compounds
- Sulphur compounds
How many of the above are products of volcanic eruptions?
- (a) Only one
- (b) Only two
- (c) Only three
- (d) All four
Answer and explanation
Answer: (d) All four
Volcanic eruptions eject pyroclastic debris (volcanic bombs, lapilli, pumice), fine ash and dust, and gases including water vapour, carbon dioxide, sulphur dioxide and hydrogen sulphide, and nitrogen and its compounds. All four are therefore products of eruptions.
Question 92 · Environment and Ecology · Species in News
The organisms "Cicada, Froghopper and Pond skater" are:
- (a) Birds
- (b) Fish
- (c) Insects
- (d) Reptiles
Answer and explanation
Answer: (c) Insects
The cicada (known for its loud call), the froghopper or spittlebug (whose nymphs live in froth on plant stems) and the pond skater or water strider (which walks on the water surface) are all insects of the order Hemiptera.
Question 93 · International Relations · International Relations
Consider the following statements:
Statement-I: Recently, Venezuela has achieved a rapid recovery from its economic crisis and succeeded in preventing its people from fleeing/emigrating to other countries.
Statement-II: Venezuela has the world's largest oil reserves.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
- (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
- (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
- (c) Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
- (d) Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
Answer and explanation
Answer: (d) Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
Venezuela has the world's largest proven oil reserves (Statement-II correct), yet it has not recovered: years of hyperinflation, collapsing oil output, sanctions and political crisis have driven more than seven million Venezuelans to emigrate, so Statement-I is incorrect.
Question 94 · Indian Polity and Governance · Parliament
Which of the following statements are correct in respect of a Money Bill in the Parliament?
- Article 109 mentions special procedure in respect of Money Bills.
- A Money Bill shall not be introduced in the Council of States.
- The Rajya Sabha can either approve the Bill or suggest changes but cannot reject it.
- Amendments to a Money Bill suggested by the Rajya Sabha have to be accepted by the Lok Sabha. Select the answer using the code given below :
- (a) 1 and 2 only
- (b) 2 and 3 only
- (c) 1, 2 and 3
- (d) 1, 3 and 4
Answer and explanation
Answer: (c) 1, 2 and 3
Article 109 lays down the special procedure for Money Bills (statement 1). Such a Bill can be introduced only in the Lok Sabha, not in the Rajya Sabha (statement 2). The Rajya Sabha can only recommend amendments within 14 days and cannot reject or amend the Bill (statement 3). The Lok Sabha is free to accept or reject those recommendations, so statement 4 is incorrect. Hence 1, 2 and 3.
Question 95 · Environment and Ecology · Pollution
Consider the following materials:
- Agricultural residues
- Corn grain
- Wastewater treatment sludge
- Wood mill waste
Which of the above can be used as feedstock for producing Sustainable Aviation Fuel ?
- (a) 1 and 2 only
- (b) 3 and 4 only
- (c) 1, 2, 3 and 4
- (d) 1, 3 and 4 only
Answer and explanation
Answer: (c) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Sustainable aviation fuel can be produced from a wide range of feedstocks: agricultural and forestry residues, wood-mill waste, municipal and sewage sludge, used cooking oil, and sugars or starches such as corn grain through the alcohol-to-jet route. All four listed materials are recognised SAF feedstocks.
Question 96 · Indian Polity and Governance · Parliament
With reference to the Indian Parliament, consider the following statements:
- A bill pending in the Lok Sabha lapses on its dissolution.
- A bill passed by the Lok Sabha and pending in the Rajya Sabha lapses on the dissolution of the Lok Sabha.
- A bill in regard to which the President of India notified his/her intention to summon the Houses to a joint sitting lapses on the dissolution of the Lok Sabha.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- (a) 1 only
- (b) 1 and 2
- (c) 2 and 3
- (d) 3 only
Answer and explanation
Answer: (b) 1 and 2
On dissolution of the Lok Sabha, a Bill pending in the Lok Sabha lapses (statement 1), and a Bill passed by the Lok Sabha but pending in the Rajya Sabha also lapses (statement 2). A Bill for which the President has notified a joint sitting does not lapse (Article 108), so statement 3 is incorrect. Hence 1 and 2.
Question 97 · Ancient History · Ancient India
With reference to ancient India, Gautama Buddha was generally known by which of the following epithets?
- Nayaputta
- Shakyamuni
- Tathagata
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
- (a) 1 only
- (b) 2 and 3 only
- (c) 1, 2 and 3
- (d) None of the above are epithets of Gautama Buddha
Answer and explanation
Answer: (b) 2 and 3 only
Shakyamuni ('sage of the Shakyas') and Tathagata ('one who has thus gone', the Buddha's own usual self-reference) are epithets of Gautama Buddha. Nayaputta or Nataputta ('son of the Nata clan') is the title used for Mahavira, the Jain tirthankara. Hence 2 and 3 only.
Question 98 · International Relations · International Relations
Consider the following statements:
Statement-I: The European Parliament approved The Net-Zero Industry Act recently.
Statement-II: The European Union intends to achieve carbon neutrality by 2040 and therefore aims to develop all of its own clean technology by that time.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
- (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
- (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
- (c) Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
- (d) Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
Answer and explanation
Answer: (c) Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
The European Parliament approved the Net-Zero Industry Act in April 2024 to expand Europe's manufacturing of clean technologies, so Statement-I is correct. The EU's legal target is climate neutrality by 2050 (with a proposed 90 per cent cut by 2040), and the Act aims at making 40 per cent of the EU's clean-technology needs domestically, not all of it, so Statement-II is incorrect.
Question 99 · Geography · Climate and Monsoon
Consider the following description:
- Annual and daily range of temperatures is low.
- Precipitation occurs throughout the year.
- Precipitation varies between 50 cm - 250 cm. What is this type of climate?
- (a) Equatorial climate
- (b) China type climate
- (c) Humid subtropical climate
- (d) Marine West coast climate
Answer and explanation
Answer: (d) Marine West coast climate
A small annual and daily temperature range, rain in every month and totals of 50-250 cm describe the marine west-coast (Cfb) climate of western Europe, British Columbia and New Zealand, which is moderated by westerly winds off warm oceans. Equatorial climates are wetter and hotter, while China-type and humid subtropical climates have a marked summer rainfall maximum.
Question 100 · Geography · Climate and Monsoon
Consider the following statements :
Statement-I: Rainfall is one of the reasons for weathering of rocks.
Statement-II: Rain water contains carbon dioxide in solution.
Statement-III: Rain water contains atmospheric oxygen.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
- (a) Both Statement-II and Statement-III are correct and both of them explain Statement-I
- (b) Both Statement-II and Statement-III are correct, but only one of them explains Statement-I
- (c) Only one of the Statements II and III is correct and that explains Statement-I
- (d) Neither Statement-II nor Statement-III is correct
Answer and explanation
Answer: (a) Both Statement-II and Statement-III are correct and both of them explain Statement-I
Rainwater weathers rocks chemically: carbon dioxide dissolved in rain forms weak carbonic acid that dissolves limestone (carbonation), and dissolved oxygen oxidises minerals such as iron (oxidation). Both Statement-II and Statement-III are correct and both explain why rainfall causes weathering.
