UPSC Prelims 2018 Question Paper (GS Paper I) with Answers
All 100 questions of the 2018 Civil Services Preliminary Examination, General Studies Paper I, in the official order. Each question has the official answer and an explanation; open “Answer and explanation” after you try it yourself.
Attempt Prelims 2018 as a timed testQuestions by subject in 2018
Question 1 · International Relations · International Relations
Very recently, in which of the following countries have lakhs of people either suffered from severe famine/acute malnutrition or died due to starvation caused by war/ethnic conflicts?
- (a) Angola and Zambia
- (b) Morocco and Tunisia
- (c) Venezuela and Colombia
- (d) Yemen and South Sudan
Answer and explanation
Answer: (d) Yemen and South Sudan
In 2017-18 the UN warned of famine in Yemen, where the civil war and the Saudi-led blockade left millions without food, and declared famine in parts of South Sudan, where civil war had displaced farmers and cut off aid. The other pairs of countries had no such famine.
Question 2 · Environment and Ecology · Climate Change
"Momentum for Change: Climate Neutral Now" is an initiative launched by
- (a) The Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change
- (b) The UNEP Secretariat
- (c) The UNFCCC Secretariat
- (d) The World Meteorological Organisation
Answer and explanation
Answer: (c) The UNFCCC Secretariat
'Momentum for Change: Climate Neutral Now' was launched in 2015 by the UNFCCC Secretariat to encourage individuals, companies and organisations to measure, reduce and offset their greenhouse-gas emissions and become climate neutral.
Question 3 · Science and Technology · Biotechnology
When the alarm of your smartphone rings in the morning, you wake up and tap it to stop the alarm which causes your geyser to be switched on automatically. The smart mirror in your bathroom shows the day's weather and also indicates the level of water in your overhead tank. After you take some groceries from your refrigerator for making breakfast, it recognises the shortage of stock in it and places an order for the supply of fresh grocery items. When you step out of your house and lock the door, all lights, fans, geysers and AC machines get switched off automatically. On your way to the office, your car warns you about traffic congestion ahead and suggests an alternative route, and if you are late for a meeting, it sends a- message to your office accordingly. In the context of emerging communication technologies, which one of the following term best applies to the above scenario?
- (a) Border Gateway Protocol
- (b) Internet of Things
- (c) Internet Protocol
- (d) Virtual Private Network
Answer and explanation
Answer: (b) Internet of Things
The scenario describes everyday objects, from the alarm clock and geyser to the refrigerator and car, fitted with sensors and connected to the internet so that they exchange data and act automatically. That is the Internet of Things (IoT). The other options are networking protocols and a secure-connection technology.
Question 4 · Modern Indian History · Freedom Struggle
Which one of the following is a very significant aspect of the Champaran Satyagraha?
- (a) Active all-India participation of lawyers, students and women in the National Movement
- (b) Active involvement of Dalit and Tribal communities of India in the National Movement
- (c) Joining of peasant unrest to India's National Movement
- (d) Drastic decrease in the cultivation of plantation crops and commercial crops
Answer and explanation
Answer: (c) Joining of peasant unrest to India's National Movement
In the Champaran Satyagraha of 1917 Gandhi took up the grievances of indigo cultivators against the planters' tinkathia system; it was the first time a peasant struggle was linked to the national movement and marked Gandhi's entry into Indian politics.
Question 5 · Environment and Ecology · Ecology Concepts
Which of the following has/have shrunk immensely/dried up in the recent past due to human activities?
- Aral Sea
- Black Sea
- Lake Baikal
- (a) 1 only
- (b) 2 and 3
- (c) 2 only
- (d) 1 and 3
Answer and explanation
Answer: (a) 1 only
The Aral Sea, once the world's fourth-largest lake, shrank to a fraction of its size after Soviet projects diverted the Amu Darya and Syr Darya for cotton irrigation, leaving a salt desert. The Black Sea and Lake Baikal have not dried up. Hence 1 only.
Question 6 · Economy · Money and Banking
Consider the following events:
- The first democratically elected communist party government formed in a State in India.
- India's then largest bank, 'Imperial Bank of India', was renamed 'State Bank of India'.
- Air India was nationalised and became the national carrier.
- Goa became a part of independent India. Which of the following is the correct chronological sequence of the above events?
- (a) 4 - 1 - 2 - 3
- (b) 3 - 2 - 1 - 4
- (c) 4 - 2 - 1 - 3
- (d) 3 - 1 -2 - 4
Answer and explanation
Answer: (b) 3 - 2 - 1 - 4
Air India was nationalised in 1953; the Imperial Bank became the State Bank of India in 1955; the first elected communist government took office in Kerala in 1957; and Goa was liberated and joined India in 1961. The sequence is 3-2-1-4.
Question 7 · Indian Polity and Governance · Parliament
With reference to the Parliament of India, which of the following Parliamentary Committees scrutinizes and reports to the House whether the powers to make regulations, rules, sub-rules, by-laws, etc. conferred by the Constitution or delegated by the Parliament are being properly exercised by the Executive within the scope of such delegation?
- (a) Committee on Government Assurances
- (b) Committee on Subordinate Legislation
- (c) Rules Committee
- (d) Business Advisory Committee
Answer and explanation
Answer: (b) Committee on Subordinate Legislation
The Committee on Subordinate Legislation examines whether the powers to make rules, regulations, by-laws and other delegated legislation conferred by the Constitution or by Parliament are being properly exercised by the executive within the limits of the delegation.
Question 8 · Economy · Fiscal Policy and Budget
With reference to the provisions made under the National Food Security Act, 2013 consider the following statements:
- The families coming under the category of 'below poverty line (BPL)' only are eligible to receive subsidised grains.
- The eldest woman in a household, of age 18 years or above, shall be the head of the household for the purpose of issuance of a ration card.
- Pregnant women and lactating mothers are entitled to a take-home ration' of 1600 calories per day during pregnancy and for six months thereafter.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- (a) 1 and 2
- (b) 2 only
- (c) 1 and 3
- (d) 3 only
Answer and explanation
Answer: (b) 2 only
The NFSA, 2013 covers up to 75 per cent of the rural and 50 per cent of the urban population as 'priority households', not only BPL families (statement 1 incorrect). The eldest woman of 18 or above is the head of the household for ration cards (statement 2 correct). Pregnant and lactating women get a maternity benefit and meals, not a 1,600-calorie take-home ration (statement 3 incorrect). Hence 2 only.
Question 9 · Economy · Fiscal Policy and Budget
Consider the following items:
- Cereal grains hulled
- Chicken eggs cooked
- Fish processed and canned
- Newspapers containing advertising material
Which of the above items is/are exempted under GST (Goods and Services Tax)?
- (a) 1 only
- (b) 2 and 3 only
- (c) 1, 2 and 4 only
- (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer and explanation
Answer: (c) 1, 2 and 4 only
Hulled cereal grains, fresh eggs (including cooked eggs in shell) and newspapers, even those carrying advertisements, are exempt from GST. Processed and canned fish attracts GST at 12 per cent. Hence 1, 2 and 4.
Question 10 · Economy · National Income
In spite of being a high saving economy, capital formation may not result in a significant increase in output due to -
- (a) weak administrative machinery
- (b) illiteracy
- (c) high population density
- (d) high capital-output ratio
Answer and explanation
Answer: (d) high capital-output ratio
The capital-output ratio measures how much capital is needed to produce a unit of output. If it is high, even large savings and capital formation add little to output, so a high-saving economy may not grow much. This was a concern with India's capital-intensive planning.
Question 11 · Science and Technology · IT and Emerging Tech
"3D printing" has applications in which of the following?
- Preparation of confectionery items
- Manufacture of bionic ears
- Automotive industry
- Reconstructive surgeries
- Data processing technologies
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
- (a) 1, 3 and 4 only
- (b) 2, 3 and 5 only
- (c) 1 and 4 only
- (d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
Answer and explanation
Answer: (d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
3D (additive) printing is used to print chocolates and confectionery, to build bionic ears and other implants, to make automotive parts and prototypes, to produce custom implants for reconstructive surgery, and even to fabricate components for data-processing hardware. Hence all five.
Question 12 · Indian Polity and Governance · Constitution and Preamble
Consider the following statements :
- As per the Right to Education (RTE) Act, to be eligible for appointment as a teacher in a State, a person would be required to possess the minimum qualifications laid down by the concerned State Council of Teacher Education.
- As per the RTE Act, for teaching primary classes, a candidate is required to pass a Teacher Eligibility Test conducted in accordance with the National Council of Teacher Education guidelines.
- In India, more than 90% of teacher education institutions are directly under the State Governments.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- (a) 1 and 2
- (b) 2 only
- (c) 1 and 3
- (d) 3 only
Answer and explanation
Answer: (b) 2 only
Under the RTE Act the minimum teacher qualifications are laid down by the National Council for Teacher Education, not state councils (statement 1 incorrect), and candidates must pass a Teacher Eligibility Test conducted under NCTE guidelines (statement 2 correct). More than 90 per cent of teacher-education institutions are private, not state-run (statement 3 incorrect). Hence 2 only.
Question 13 · Modern Indian History · Freedom Struggle
Which of the following led to the introduction of English Education in India?
- Charter Act of 1813
- General Committee of Public Instruction, 1823
- Orientalist and Anglicist Controversy
Select the correct answer using the code given below
- (a) 1 and 2 only
- (b) 2 only
- (c) 1 and 3 only
- (d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer and explanation
Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3
The Charter Act of 1813 set aside one lakh rupees a year for education, the General Committee of Public Instruction (1823) administered it, and the Orientalist-Anglicist controversy was settled by Macaulay's Minute and Bentinck's resolution of 1835 in favour of English education. All three led to the introduction of English education. Hence 1, 2 and 3.
Question 14 · Art and Culture · Dance and Music
With reference to cultural history of India, consider the following statements :
- Most of the Tyagaraja Kritis are devotional songs in praise of Lord Krishna.
- Tyagaraja created several new ragas.
- Annamacharya and Tyagaraja are contemporaries.
- Annamacharya kirtanas are devotional songs in praise of Lord Venkateshwara.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
- (a) 1 and 3 only
- (b) 2 and 4 only
- (c) 1, 2 and 3
- (d) 2, 3 and 4
Answer and explanation
Answer: (b) 2 and 4 only
Tyagaraja created new ragas such as Kharaharapriya and Harikambhoji (statement 2), and Annamacharya's kirtanas praise Lord Venkateshwara of Tirupati (statement 4). Most of Tyagaraja's kritis are in praise of Rama, not Krishna (statement 1 incorrect), and Annamacharya (15th century) and Tyagaraja (18th-19th century) were not contemporaries (statement 3 incorrect). Hence 2 and 4.
Question 15 · Science and Technology · Space
Consider the following phenomena :
- Light is affected by gravity.
- The Universe is constantly expanding.
- Matter warps its surrounding space-time.
Which of the above is/are the prediction/predictions of Albert Einstein's General Theory of Relativity, often discussed in media?
- (a) 1 and 2 only
- (b) 3 only
- (c) 1 and 3 only
- (d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer and explanation
Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3
General relativity predicts that gravity bends light (confirmed in the 1919 eclipse), that matter warps the space-time around it, and its equations imply a dynamic universe, the basis of the expanding-universe model confirmed by Hubble. All three are predictions of the theory.
Question 16 · Indian Society and Schemes · Social Schemes
With reference to Pradhan Mantri Kaushal Vikas Yojana, consider the following statements
- It is the flagship scheme of the Ministry of Labour and Employment.
- It, among other things, will also impart training in soft skills, entrepreneurship, financial and digital literacy.
- It aims to align the competencies of the unregulated workforce of the country to the National Skill Qualification Framework.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- (a) 1 and 3 only
- (b) 2 only
- (c) 2 and 3 only
- (d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer and explanation
Answer: (c) 2 and 3 only
PMKVY is the flagship scheme of the Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship, not Labour (statement 1 incorrect). Besides technical skills it provides training in soft skills, entrepreneurship and financial and digital literacy (statement 2), and through Recognition of Prior Learning it aligns the skills of the unregulated workforce to the National Skills Qualification Framework (statement 3). Hence 2 and 3.
Question 17 · Economy · National Income
Consider the following statements: Human capital formation as a concept is better explained in terms of a process, which enables
- individuals of a country to accumulate more capital.
- increasing the knowledge, skill levels and capacities of the people of the country.
- accumulation of tangible wealth.
- accumulation of intangible wealth.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- (a) 1 and 2
- (b) 2 only
- (c) 2 and 4
- (d) 1, 3 and 4
Answer and explanation
Answer: (c) 2 and 4
Human capital formation is the process of raising the knowledge, skills, health and capacities of people through education and training (statement 2), which is an accumulation of intangible wealth embodied in people (statement 4). It is not about individuals accumulating physical capital or tangible wealth. Hence 2 and 4.
Question 18 · Environment and Ecology · Biodiversity and Protected Areas
In which one of the following States is Pakhui Wildlife Sanctuary located?
- (a) Arunachal Pradesh
- (b) Manipur
- (c) Meghalaya
- (d) Nagaland
Answer and explanation
Answer: (a) Arunachal Pradesh
Pakhui (Pakke) Wildlife Sanctuary and Tiger Reserve lies in the East Kameng district of Arunachal Pradesh, on the Assam border, known for hornbills and its community-based hornbill nest adoption programme.
Question 19 · Modern Indian History · History
After the Santhal Uprising subsided, what was/were the measure/measures taken by the colonial government?
- The territories called `Santhal Paraganas' were created.
- It became illegal for a Santhal to transfer land to a non-Santhal.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
- (a) 1 only
- (b) 2 only
- (c) Both 1 and 2
- (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer and explanation
Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2
After the Santhal rebellion of 1855-56 the British created the separate district of Santhal Parganas with its own regulations, and later tenancy laws made the transfer of Santhal land to non-Santhals illegal. Both measures were taken. Hence both 1 and 2.
Question 20 · Science and Technology · Health
Consider the following:
- Birds
- Dust blowing
- Rain
- Wind blowing
Which of the above spread plant diseases?
- (a) 1 and 3 only
- (b) 3 and 4 only
- (c) 1, 2 and 4 only
- (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer and explanation
Answer: (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Plant pathogens travel on birds that carry spores and insects, on wind-blown dust and spores, in rain splash and water droplets, and on the wind itself. All four spread plant diseases.
Question 21 · Indian Polity and Governance · Parliament
With reference to the election of the President of India, consider the following statements:
- The value of the vote of each MLA varies from State to State.
- The value of the vote of MPs of the Lok Sabha is more than the value of the vote of MPs of the Rajya Sabha. Which of the following statements given above is/are Correct?
- (a) 1 and 2
- (b) 2 only
- (c) 1 only
- (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer and explanation
Answer: (c) 1 only
The value of an MLA's vote in the presidential election depends on the state's population divided by its number of MLAs, so it varies from state to state (statement 1 correct). The vote value of every MP, whether of the Lok Sabha or Rajya Sabha, is the same, calculated by dividing the total value of all MLAs' votes by the total number of elected MPs (statement 2 incorrect). Hence 1 only.
Question 22 · Indian Society and Schemes · Society and Social Issues
Which of the following is/are the aim/aims of "Digital India" Plan of the Government of India?
- Formation of India's own Internet companies like China did.
- Establish a policy framework to encourage overseas multinational corporations that collect Big Data to build their large data centres within our national geographical boundaries.
- Connect many of our villages to the Internet and bring Wi-Fi to many of our school, public places and major tourist centres
Select the correct answer using the code given below
- (a) 1 and 2 only
- (b) 3 only
- (c) 2 and 3 only
- (d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer and explanation
Answer: (b) 3 only
Digital India aims at digital infrastructure for every citizen, governance and services on demand and digital empowerment, including connecting villages through BharatNet and providing public Wi-Fi in schools, public places and tourist centres (statement 3). It does not aim to create Indian internet companies on the Chinese model or to attract foreign data centres (statements 1 and 2 incorrect). Hence 3 only.
Question 23 · Economy · Economy
Which one of the following links all the ATMs in India?
- (a) Indian banks' Association
- (b) National Securities Depository Limited
- (c) National Payments Corporation of India
- (d) Reserve Bank of India
Answer and explanation
Answer: (c) National Payments Corporation of India
The National Financial Switch, operated by the National Payments Corporation of India, connects all ATMs in the country so that a card of any bank can be used at any ATM. NPCI also runs UPI, RuPay and IMPS.
Question 24 · Economy · Infrastructure
Consider the following:
- Areca nut
- Barley
- Coffee
- Finger millet
- Groundnut
- Sesamum
- Turmeric The Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs has announced the Minimum Support Price for which of the above?
- (a) 1, 2, 3 and 7 only
- (b) 2, 4, 5 and 6 only
- (c) 1, 3, 4, 5 and 6 only
- (d) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6 and 7
Answer and explanation
Answer: (b) 2, 4, 5 and 6 only
The CCEA announces MSPs for 22 crops plus sugarcane's fair and remunerative price: these include barley (rabi), ragi or finger millet, groundnut and sesamum (kharif). Areca nut, coffee and turmeric are not MSP crops. Hence 2, 4, 5 and 6.
Question 25 · International Relations · International Relations
Consider the following pairs:
Regions sometimes mentioned in news Country 1. Catalonia Spain 2. Crimea Hungary 3. Mindanao Philippines 4. Oromia Nigeria Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched?
- (a) 1, 2 and 3
- (b) 3 and 4 only
- (c) 1 and 3 only
- (d) 2 and 4 only
Answer and explanation
Answer: (c) 1 and 3 only
Catalonia is a region of Spain seeking independence, and Mindanao is the southern island of the Philippines troubled by insurgency; pairs 1 and 3 are correct. Crimea is the peninsula annexed by Russia from Ukraine, not in Hungary, and Oromia is a region of Ethiopia, not Nigeria. Hence 1 and 3.
Question 26 · Environment and Ecology · Ecology Concepts
The term "sixth mass extinction/sixth extinction" is often mentioned in the news in the context of the discussion of
- (a) Widespread monoculture practices in agriculture and large-scale commercial farming with indiscriminate use of chemicals in many parts of the world that may result in the loss of good native ecosystems.
- (b) Fears of a possible collision of a meteorite with the Earth in the near future in the manner it happened 65 million years ago that caused the mass extinction of many species including those of dinosaurs.
- (c) Large scale cultivation of genetically modified crops in many parts of the world and promoting their cultivation in other parts of the world which may cause the disappearance of good native crop plants and the loss of food biodiversity.
- (d) Mankind's over-exploitation/misuse of natural resources, fragmentation/loss of natural habitats, destruction of ecosystems, pollution and global climate change.
Answer and explanation
Answer: (d) Mankind's over-exploitation/misuse of natural resources, fragmentation/loss of natural habitats, destruction of ecosystems, pollution and global climate change.
The 'sixth mass extinction' refers to the current, human-caused loss of species at a rate comparable to the five great extinctions of the geological past, driven by over-exploitation of resources, habitat loss and fragmentation, pollution and climate change. Option (d) describes it.
Question 27 · Indian Society and Schemes · Society and Social Issues
As per the NSSO 70th Round "Situation Assessment Survey of Agricultural Households", consider the following statements
- Rajasthan has the highest percentage share of agricultural households among its rural households.
- Out of the total agricultural households in the country, a little over 60 per cent belong to OBCs.
- In Kerala, a little over 60 per cent of agricultural households reported to have received maximum income from sources other than agricultural activities.
- (a) 2 and 3 only
- (b) 2 only
- (c) 1 and 3 only
- (d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer and explanation
Answer: (c) 1 and 3 only
The NSSO's 70th round found that Rajasthan had the highest share of agricultural households among rural households (about 78 per cent) (statement 1), and that in Kerala over 60 per cent of agricultural households earned most of their income from non-agricultural sources (statement 3). OBCs made up about 45 per cent of agricultural households, not over 60 per cent (statement 2 incorrect). Hence 1 and 3.
Question 28 · International Relations · Treaties and Conventions
In the Indian context, what is the implication of ratifying the 'Additional Protocol' with the 'International Atomic Energy Agency (IAEA)'?
- (a) The civilian nuclear reactors come under IAEA safeguards.
- (b) The military nuclear installations come under the inspection of IAEA.
- (c) The country will have the privilege to buy uranium from the Nuclear Suppliers Group NSG.
- (d) The country automatically becomes a member of the NSG.
Answer and explanation
Answer: (a) The civilian nuclear reactors come under IAEA safeguards.
By ratifying the Additional Protocol in 2014, India accepted expanded IAEA access to its civilian nuclear facilities, which are placed under safeguards under the 2008 India-specific safeguards agreement; the military programme stays outside. It does not confer NSG membership or NPT membership.
Question 29 · Modern Indian History · Freedom Struggle
In the federation established by the Government of India Act of 1935, residuary power was given to the
- (a) Federal Legislature
- (b) Governor General
- (c) Provincial Legislature
- (d) Provincial Governors
Answer and explanation
Answer: (b) Governor General
The Government of India Act, 1935 divided powers into federal, provincial and concurrent lists and vested the residuary powers in the Governor-General, who could allot a residuary subject to either the federal or a provincial legislature.
Question 30 · Geography · Physical Geography
Consider the following statements:
- The Earth's magnetic field has reversed every few hundred thousand years.
- When the Earth was created more than 4000 million years ago, there was 54% oxygen and no carbon dioxide.
- When living organisms originated, they modified the early atmosphere of the Earth.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- (a) 1 only
- (b) 2 and 3 only
- (c) 1 and 3 only
- (d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer and explanation
Answer: (c) 1 and 3 only
The Earth's magnetic field has reversed polarity many times, roughly every few hundred thousand years (statement 1), and early life, through photosynthesis, transformed the primitive atmosphere by releasing oxygen (statement 3). The early atmosphere had virtually no free oxygen, so statement 2 is incorrect. Hence 1 and 3.
Question 31 · Science and Technology · Biology
The identity platform `Aadhaar' provides open "Application Programming Interfaces (APIs)". What does it imply?
- It can be integrated into any electronic device.
- Online authentication using iris is possible.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- (a) 1 only
- (b) 2 only
- (c) Both 1 and 2
- (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer and explanation
Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2
Aadhaar's open APIs let any device or application call the UIDAI's authentication and e-KYC services, so Aadhaar can be integrated into any electronic device with a registered client, and authentication can use biometrics including iris scans as well as fingerprints and OTPs. Both statements are correct.
Question 32 · Modern Indian History · History
With reference to educational institutes during colonial rule in India, consider the following pairs :
Institution Founder 1. Sanskrit College at Benaras William Jones 2. Calcutta Madrasa Warren Hastings 3. Fort William College Arthur Wellesley Which of the pairs given above is/are correct ?
- (a) 1 and 2
- (b) 2 only
- (c) 1 and 3
- (d) 3 only
Answer and explanation
Answer: (b) 2 only
Warren Hastings founded the Calcutta Madrasa in 1781, so pair 2 is correct. The Benaras Sanskrit College was founded by Jonathan Duncan in 1791 (not William Jones), and Fort William College was set up in 1800 by Richard Wellesley, the Governor-General, not his brother Arthur. Hence 2 only.
Question 33 · Art and Culture · Sculpture and Painting
The well-known painting "Bani Thani" belongs to the
- (a) Bundi school
- (b) Jaipur school
- (c) Kangra school
- (d) Kishangarh school
Answer and explanation
Answer: (d) Kishangarh school
'Bani Thani', the portrait of a lady with elongated eyes and sharp features painted by Nihal Chand in the 18th century, is the masterpiece of the Kishangarh school of Rajasthani painting, patronised by Raja Sawant Singh.
Question 34 · Environment and Ecology · Ecology Concepts
With reference to solar power production in India, consider the following statements:
- India is the third largest in the world in the manufacture of silicon wafers used in photovoltaic units.
- The solar power tariffs are determined by the Solar Energy Corporation of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- (a) 1 only
- (b) 2 only
- (c) Both 1 and 2
- (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer and explanation
Answer: (d) Neither 1 nor 2
India manufactures very few silicon wafers; it imports most cells and wafers, mainly from China, so statement 1 is incorrect. Solar tariffs are discovered through competitive bidding or fixed by the electricity regulatory commissions, not by the Solar Energy Corporation of India, which is an implementing agency, so statement 2 is incorrect. Hence neither.
Question 35 · Economy · Money and Banking
Consider the following statements:
- Capital Adequacy Ratio (CAR) is the amount that banks have to maintain in the form of their own funds to offset any loss that banks incur if the account-holders fail to repay dues.
- CAR is decided by each individual bank.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- (a) 1 only
- (b) 2 only
- (c) Both 1 and 2
- (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer and explanation
Answer: (a) 1 only
The capital adequacy ratio is the capital a bank must hold in relation to its risk-weighted assets as a cushion against losses, such as loans that borrowers fail to repay (statement 1). It is prescribed by the RBI under the Basel norms (9 per cent in India), not decided by each bank (statement 2 incorrect). Hence 1 only.
Question 36 · Art and Culture · Festivals and Crafts
With reference to Indian history, who among the following is a future Buddha, yet to come to save the world?
- (a) Avalokiteshvara
- (b) Lokesvara
- (c) Maitreya
- (d) Padmapani
Answer and explanation
Answer: (c) Maitreya
Maitreya is the future Buddha of Buddhist tradition, who waits in the Tushita heaven and will appear on earth to teach the dharma afresh. Avalokiteshvara, Lokeshvara and Padmapani are names of the bodhisattva of compassion.
Question 37 · Geography · Map-based
Among the following cities, which one lies on a longitude closest to that of Delhi?
- (a) Bengaluru
- (b) Hyderabad
- (c) Nagpur
- (d) Pune
Answer and explanation
Answer: (a) Bengaluru
Delhi lies at about 77.1 degrees E longitude. Bengaluru (77.6 degrees E) is almost on the same meridian, whereas Pune (73.9), Hyderabad (78.5) and Nagpur (79.1) are farther away in longitude.
Question 38 · Indian Polity and Governance · Constitution and Preamble
Consider the following statements :
- Aadhaar card can be used as a proof of citizenship or domicile.
- Once issued, the Aadhaar number cannot be deactivated or omitted by the Issuing Authority.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- (a) 1 only
- (b) 2 Only
- (c) 1 and 2
- (d) None of the above
Answer and explanation
Answer: (d) None of the above
The Aadhaar Act states that Aadhaar is proof of identity only and not of citizenship or domicile (statement 1 incorrect), and the UIDAI can deactivate or omit an Aadhaar number under its regulations, for instance for fraud or non-use (statement 2 incorrect). Hence neither.
Question 39 · International Relations · International Relations
Consider the following pairs:
Town Sometime mentioned in news Country 1. Aleppo Syria 2. Kirkuk Yemen 3. Mosul Palestine 4. Mazar-i-Sharif Afghanistan Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched?
- (a) 1 and 2
- (b) 1 and 4
- (c) 2 and 3
- (d) 3 and 4
Answer and explanation
Answer: (b) 1 and 4
Aleppo is in Syria and Mazar-i-Sharif in Afghanistan, so pairs 1 and 4 are correct. Kirkuk and Mosul are both cities in Iraq, not Yemen or Palestine. Hence 1 and 4.
Question 40 · Modern Indian History · History
Which one of the following statements does not apply to the system of Subsidiary Alliance introduced by Lord Wellesley?
- (a) To maintain a large standing army at other's expense
- (b) To secure a fixed income for the Company
- (c) To keep India safe from Napoleonic danger
- (d) To establish British paramountcy over the Indian States
Answer and explanation
Answer: (b) To secure a fixed income for the Company
Under the Subsidiary Alliance, the Indian ruler paid for a British force stationed in his territory, kept out other Europeans (such as the French), and accepted British paramountcy. The Company gained an army at others' expense and political control, but the system was not designed to secure a fixed income for the Company; so (b) does not apply.
Question 41 · Economy · External Sector
Consider the following statements:
- The quantity of imported edible oils is more than the domestic production of edible oils in the last five years.
- The Government does not impose any customs duty on all the imported edible oils as a special case. Which of the two statements given above is/are correct?
- (a) 1 only
- (b) 2 only
- (c) Both 1 and 2
- (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer and explanation
Answer: (a) 1 only
India imports more edible oil (about 14-15 million tonnes a year) than it produces (around 10 million tonnes), so statement 1 is correct. The government levies customs duty on imported edible oils and adjusts it to protect farmers, so statement 2 is incorrect. Hence 1 only.
Question 42 · Indian Polity and Governance · Constitution and Preamble
Right to Privacy is protected as an intrinsic part of Right to Life and Personal Liberty. Which of the following in the Constitution of India correctly and appropriately imply the above statement?
- (a) Article 14 and the provisions under the 42nd Amendment to the Constitution
- (b) Article 17 and the Directive Principles of State Policy in Part IV
- (c) Article 21 and the freedoms guaranteed in Part III
- (d) Article 24 and the provisions under the 44th Amendment to the Constitution
Answer and explanation
Answer: (c) Article 21 and the freedoms guaranteed in Part III
In the Puttaswamy judgment (2017) the Supreme Court held that the right to privacy is an intrinsic part of the right to life and personal liberty under Article 21 and is also implicit in the other freedoms guaranteed by Part III of the Constitution.
Question 43 · International Relations · International Relations
The term "two-state solution" is sometimes mentioned in the news in the context of the affairs of -
- (a) China
- (b) Israel
- (c) Iraq
- (d) Yemen
Answer and explanation
Answer: (b) Israel
The 'two-state solution' refers to the proposal to resolve the Israeli-Palestinian conflict by establishing an independent State of Palestine alongside the State of Israel.
Question 44 · Economy · Money and Banking
With reference to digital payments, consider the following statements:
- BHIM app allows the user to transfer money to anyone with a UPI-enabled bank account.
- While a chip-pin debit card has four factors of authentication, BHIM app has only two factors of authentication.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- (a) 1 only
- (b) 2 only
- (c) Both 1 and 2
- (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer and explanation
Answer: (a) 1 only
The BHIM app lets a user send money to anyone with a UPI-linked bank account using a virtual payment address, mobile number or account details (statement 1). Statement 2 is incorrect: a chip-and-PIN card uses two factors (card and PIN), as does BHIM (device binding and UPI PIN), so the comparison of four versus two factors is wrong. Hence 1 only.
Question 45 · Science and Technology · Biotechnology
Consider the following pairs :
Terms sometimes seen in news Context /Topic 1. Belle II experiment Artificial Intelligence 2. Blockchain technology Digital/Cryptocurrency 3. CRISPR — Cas9 Particle Physics Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched ?
- (a) 1 and 3 only
- (b) 2 only
- (c) 2 and 3 only
- (d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer and explanation
Answer: (b) 2 only
Blockchain is the distributed-ledger technology underlying cryptocurrencies such as Bitcoin, so pair 2 is correct. Belle II is a particle-physics experiment in Japan, not artificial intelligence, and CRISPR-Cas9 is a gene-editing tool, not particle physics. Hence 2 only.
Question 46 · Modern Indian History · History
Who among the following were the founders of the "Hind Mazdoor Sabha" established in 1948?
- (a) B. Krishna Pillai, E.M.S. Namboodiripad and K.C. George
- (b) Jayaprakash Narayan, Deen Day al Upadhyay and M.N. Roy
- (c) C.P. Ramaswamy Iyer, K. Kamaraj and Veeresalingam Pantulu
- (d) Ashok Mehta, T.S. Ramanujam and G.G. Mehta
Answer and explanation
Answer: (d) Ashok Mehta, T.S. Ramanujam and G.G. Mehta
The Hind Mazdoor Sabha was founded in December 1948 by socialists and trade unionists who broke from the communist-led AITUC, including Ashok Mehta, T.S. Ramanujam, G.G. Mehta and Basawon Singh.
Question 47 · Economy · Money and Banking
Consider the following statements
- The Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management (FRBM) Review Committee Report has recommended a debt to GDP ratio of 60% for the general (combined) government by 2023, comprising 40% for the Central Government and 20% for the State Governments.
- The Central Government has domestic liabilities of 21% of GDP as compared to 49% of GDP of the State Governments.
- As per the Constitution of India, it is mandatory for a State to take the Central Government's consent for raising any loan if the former owes any outstanding liabilities to the latter.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- (a) 1 only
- (b) 2 and 3 only
- (c) 1 and 3 only
- (d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer and explanation
Answer: (c) 1 and 3 only
The N.K. Singh FRBM Review Committee (2017) recommended a general government debt-to-GDP ratio of 60 per cent by 2023, 40 per cent for the Centre and 20 per cent for the states (statement 1), and Article 293(3) requires a state to obtain the Centre's consent for borrowing if it owes the Centre any outstanding loan (statement 3). The Centre's liabilities are far higher than the states', so statement 2 is incorrect. Hence 1 and 3.
Question 48 · Science and Technology · Biotechnology
The terms 'Wanna Cry, Petya and Eternal Blue' sometimes mentioned in the news recently are related to
- (a) Exo-planets
- (b) Crypto-currency
- (c) Cyberattacks
- (d) Minisatellites
Answer and explanation
Answer: (c) Cyberattacks
WannaCry and Petya were ransomware attacks of 2017 that encrypted computers worldwide, and EternalBlue is the Windows exploit, leaked from the NSA, that they used to spread. All three relate to cyberattacks.
Question 49 · Environment and Ecology · Pollution
How is the National Green Tribunal (NGT) different from the Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB)?
- The NGT has been established by an Act whereas the CPCB has been created by executive order of the Government.
- The NGT provides environmental justice and helps reduce the burden of litigation in the higher courts whereas the CPCB promotes cleanliness of streams and wells, and aims to improve the quality of air in the country.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct
- (a) 1 only
- (b) 2 only
- (c) 1 and 2
- (d) None of the above
Answer and explanation
Answer: (b) 2 only
Both bodies are statutory: the NGT under the National Green Tribunal Act, 2010 and the CPCB under the Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1974, so statement 1 is incorrect. The NGT delivers environmental justice and reduces the burden on the higher courts, while the CPCB works to keep streams and wells clean and improve air quality, so statement 2 is correct. Hence 2 only.
Question 50 · Economy · Economy
India enacted the Geographical Indications of Goods (Registration and Protection) Act, 1999 in order to comply with the obligations to
- (a) ILO
- (b) IMF
- (c) UNCTAD
- (d) WTO
Answer and explanation
Answer: (d) WTO
India enacted the Geographical Indications of Goods (Registration and Protection) Act, 1999 to comply with its obligations under the WTO's Agreement on Trade-Related Aspects of Intellectual Property Rights (TRIPS), which requires members to protect geographical indications.
Question 51 · Indian Polity and Governance · Executive
If the President of India exercises his power as provided under Article 356 of the Constitution in respect of a particular State, then -
- (a) the Assembly of the State is automatically dissolved.
- (b) the powers of the Legislature of that State shall be exercisable by or under the authority of the Parliament.
- (c) Article 19 is suspended in that State.
- (d) the President can make laws relating to that State.
Answer and explanation
Answer: (b) the powers of the Legislature of that State shall be exercisable by or under the authority of the Parliament.
When President's Rule is imposed under Article 356, the President may declare that the powers of the state legislature shall be exercisable by or under the authority of Parliament (Article 357). The assembly may be suspended or dissolved but is not automatically dissolved, Article 19 is not suspended, and it is Parliament, not the President, that legislates for the state.
Question 52 · Geography · Map-based
Consider the following statements:
- The Barren Island volcano is an active volcano located in the Indian territory.
- Barren Island lies about 140 km east of Great Nicobar.
- The last time the Barren Island volcano erupted was in 1991 and it has remained inactive since then.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- (a) 1 and 3 only
- (b) 2 and 3
- (c) 3 only
- (d) 1 only
Answer and explanation
Answer: (d) 1 only
Barren Island in the Andaman Sea is the only active volcano in Indian territory (statement 1). It lies about 140 km north-east of Port Blair, not east of Great Nicobar (statement 2 incorrect), and after erupting in 1991 it has erupted repeatedly, including in 2017 and 2018 (statement 3 incorrect). Hence 1 only.
Question 53 · International Relations · Global Groupings
Consider the following countries :
- Australia
- Canada
- China
- India
- Japan
- USA
Which of the above are among the 'free-trade partners' of ASEAN?
- (a) 1, 2, 4 and 5
- (b) 3, 4, 5 and 6
- (c) 1, 3, 4 and 5
- (d) 2, 3, 4 and 6
Answer and explanation
Answer: (c) 1, 3, 4 and 5
ASEAN has free-trade agreements with six dialogue partners: China, Japan, South Korea, India, Australia and New Zealand (the 'ASEAN+6', which negotiated RCEP). Canada and the USA are not ASEAN FTA partners. Hence 1, 3, 4 and 5.
Question 54 · Indian Polity and Governance · Parliament
Consider the following statements :
- The Parliament of India can place a particular law in the Ninth Schedule of the Constitution of India.
- The validity of a law placed in the Ninth Schedule cannot be examined by any court and no judgement can be made on it.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- (a) 1 only
- (b) 2 only
- (c) Both 1 and 2
- (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer and explanation
Answer: (a) 1 only
Parliament can place a law in the Ninth Schedule through a constitutional amendment (statement 1). But in I.R. Coelho (2007) the Supreme Court held that laws added to the Ninth Schedule after 24 April 1973 are open to judicial review if they violate the basic structure, so statement 2 is incorrect. Hence 1 only.
Question 55 · International Relations · Treaties and Conventions
What is/are the consequence/consequences of a country becoming a member of the 'Nuclear Suppliers Group'?
- It will have access to the latest and most efficient nuclear technologies.
- It automatically becomes a member of "The Treaty on the Non-Proliferation of Nuclear Weapons (NPT)".
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- (a) 1 only
- (b) 2 only
- (c) Both 1 and 2
- (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer and explanation
Answer: (a) 1 only
Members of the Nuclear Suppliers Group can trade in nuclear materials and the latest nuclear technology among themselves under agreed guidelines (statement 1). NSG membership does not make a country a party to the NPT, which is a separate treaty that India has not signed (statement 2 incorrect). Hence 1 only.
Question 56 · Art and Culture · Festivals and Crafts
With reference to the religious practices in India, the "Sthanakvasi" sect belongs to -
- (a) Buddhism
- (b) Jainism
- (c) Vaishnavism
- (d) Shaivism
Answer and explanation
Answer: (b) Jainism
The Sthanakvasi are a sect of Svetambara Jainism founded in the 17th century; they reject idol worship and worship in sthanakas (halls) rather than temples. Terapanthis are a later offshoot.
Question 57 · Indian Polity and Governance · Parliament
Consider the following statements :
- In the first Lok Sabha, the single largest party in the opposition was the Swatantra Party.
- In the Lok Sabha, a "Leader of the Opposition" was recognised for the first time in 1969.
- In the Lok Sabha, if a party does not have a minimum of 75 members, its leader cannot be recognised as the Leader of the Opposition.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- (a) 1 and 3 only
- (b) 2 only
- (c) 2 and 3 only
- (d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer and explanation
Answer: (b) 2 only
The office of Leader of the Opposition was first recognised in the Lok Sabha in 1969 (statement 2). In the first Lok Sabha the largest opposition party was the CPI, not the Swatantra Party, which was founded only in 1959 (statement 1 incorrect), and the convention requires one-tenth of the House's strength (55 members), not 75 (statement 3 incorrect). Hence 2 only.
Question 58 · Science and Technology · Space
With reference to the Indian Regional Navigation Satellite System (IRNSS), consider the following statements :
- IRNSS has three satellites in geostationary and four satellites in geosynchronous orbits.
- IRNSS covers entire India and about 5500 sq. km beyond its borders.
- India will have its own satellite navigation system with full global coverage by the middle of 2019.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- (a) 1 only
- (b) 1 and 2 only
- (c) 2 and 3 only
- (d) None
Answer and explanation
Answer: (a) 1 only
IRNSS (NavIC) has seven satellites, three in geostationary orbit and four in inclined geosynchronous orbit (statement 1). It covers India and about 1,500 km beyond its borders, not 5,500 sq km (statement 2 incorrect), and it is a regional system with no plan for global coverage by 2019 (statement 3 incorrect). Hence 1 only.
Question 59 · Economy · Economy
If a commodity is provided free to the public by the Government, then
- (a) the opportunity cost is zero.
- (b) the opportunity cost is ignored.
- (c) the opportunity cost is transferred from the consumers of the product to the Government.
- (d) the opportunity cost is transferred from the consumers of the product to the tax-paying public.
Answer and explanation
Answer: (d) the opportunity cost is transferred from the consumers of the product to the tax-paying public.
A good provided free by the government still has an opportunity cost, since the resources used could have produced something else; the cost is simply shifted from the consumers who would have paid for it to the taxpayers who finance the government's spending.
Question 60 · Indian Polity and Governance · Constitution and Preamble
Which one of the following reflects the most appropriate relationship between law and liberty?
- (a) if there are more laws, there is less liberty.
- (b) If there are no laws, there is no liberty.
- (c) If there is liberty, laws have to be made by the people.
- (d) If laws are changed too often, liberty is in danger.
Answer and explanation
Answer: (b) If there are no laws, there is no liberty.
Liberty is not the absence of law but is secured by law: without laws there would be no protection against the strong, so there would be no liberty. More laws do not necessarily mean less liberty, and frequent changes or popular law-making are not the essence of the relationship.
Question 61 · Environment and Ecology · Species in News
Why is a plant called Prosopis juliflora often mentioned in the news?
- (a) Its extract is widely used in cosmetics.
- (b) It tends to reduce the biodiversity in the area in which it grows.
- (c) Its extract is used in the synthesis of pesticides.
- (d) None of the above
Answer and explanation
Answer: (b) It tends to reduce the biodiversity in the area in which it grows.
Prosopis juliflora (vilayati babul), introduced from Central America, is an invasive tree that spreads aggressively in dry regions, depletes groundwater and crowds out native vegetation, reducing biodiversity; states such as Tamil Nadu and Gujarat have tried to eradicate it.
Question 62 · Modern Indian History · Freedom Struggle
In 1920, which of the following changed its name to "Swarajya Sabha"?
- (a) All India Home Rule League
- (b) Hindu Mahasabha
- (c) South Indian Liberal Federation
- (d) The Servants of India Society
Answer and explanation
Answer: (a) All India Home Rule League
In 1920 the All India Home Rule League, then led by Gandhi after Tilak's death, changed its name to Swarajya Sabha, and it soon merged into the Congress.
Question 63 · Economy · Money and Banking
Which one of the following statements correctly describes the meaning of legal tender money?
- (a) The money which is tendered in courts of law to defray the fee of legal cases
- (b) The money which a creditor is under compulsion to accept in settlement of his claims
- (c) The bank money in the form of cheques, drafts, bills of exchange, etc.
- (d) The metallic money in circulation in a country
Answer and explanation
Answer: (b) The money which a creditor is under compulsion to accept in settlement of his claims
Legal tender is money that a creditor is legally bound to accept in settlement of a debt. In India, coins and currency notes issued under the RBI Act are legal tender; cheques and drafts are not, since they can be refused.
Question 64 · Medieval History · Medieval India
He wrote biographies of Mazzini, Garibaldi, Shivaji and Shrikrishna; stayed in America for some time, and was also elected to the Central Assembly. He was
- (a) Aurobindo Ghosh
- (b) Bipin Chandra Pal
- (c) Lala Lajpat Rai
- (d) Motilal Nehru
Answer and explanation
Answer: (c) Lala Lajpat Rai
Lala Lajpat Rai wrote biographies of Mazzini, Garibaldi, Shivaji and Shri Krishna, lived in the United States from 1914 to 1919 where he founded the Indian Home Rule League of America, and was elected to the Central Legislative Assembly in 1926.
Question 65 · Indian Polity and Governance · Parliament
Consider the following statements:
- The Speaker of the Legislative Assembly shall vacate his/her office if he/she ceases to be a member of the Assembly.
- Whenever the Legislative Assembly is dissolved, the Speaker shall vacate his/her immediately.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- (a) 1 only
- (b) 2only
- (c) Both 1 and 2
- (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer and explanation
Answer: (a) 1 only
Under Article 179 the Speaker of a Legislative Assembly vacates office if he or she ceases to be a member of the Assembly (statement 1). When the Assembly is dissolved the Speaker continues in office until the new Assembly meets, so statement 2 is incorrect. Hence 1 only.
Question 66 · Science and Technology · Biology
In which of the following areas can GPS technology be used?
- Mobile phone operations
- Banking operations
- Controlling the power grids
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
- (a) 1 only
- (b) 2 and 3 only
- (c) 1 and 3 only
- (d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer and explanation
Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3
GPS satellites provide not only positioning but also precise time signals; mobile networks use GPS timing to synchronise cell towers, banks and stock exchanges use it to time-stamp transactions, and power grids use it to synchronise phasor measurements. All three areas use GPS.
Question 67 · Indian Polity and Governance · Federalism and Centre–State Relations
Consider the following statements:
- No criminal proceedings shall be instituted against the Governor of a State in any court during his term of office.
- The emoluments and allowances of the Governor of a State shall not be diminished during his term of office.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- (a) 1 only
- (b) 2 only
- (c) Both 1 and 2
- (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer and explanation
Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2
Under Article 361 no criminal proceedings can be instituted or continued against the Governor during the term of office (statement 1), and under Article 158 the Governor's emoluments and allowances cannot be reduced during the term (statement 2). Both are correct.
Question 68 · Modern Indian History · Freedom Struggle
Economically, one of the results of the British rule in India in the 19th century was the -
- (a) increase in the export of Indian handicrafts
- (b) growth in the number of Indian owned factories
- (c) commercialization of Indian agriculture
- (d) rapid increase in the urban population
Answer and explanation
Answer: (c) commercialization of Indian agriculture
British rule in the 19th century led to the commercialisation of Indian agriculture: peasants were pushed to grow cash crops such as cotton, jute, indigo, opium and tea for export and to pay cash revenue. Handicraft exports declined, Indian-owned factories were few, and urban population did not rise rapidly.
Question 69 · Indian Polity and Governance · Constitution and Preamble
"Rule of Law Index" is released by which of the following?
- (a) Amnesty International
- (b) International Court of Justice
- (c) The Office of UN Commissioner for Human Rights
- (d) World Justice Project
Answer and explanation
Answer: (d) World Justice Project
The Rule of Law Index, which rates countries on constraints on government power, absence of corruption, open government, fundamental rights, order and security, regulatory enforcement and justice, is published by the World Justice Project, an independent organisation.
Question 70 · Science and Technology · Space
With reference to India's satellite launch vehicles, consider the following statements:
- PSLVs launch the satellites useful for Earth resources monitoring whereas GSLVs are designed mainly to launch communication satellites.
- Satellites launched by PSLV appear to remain permanently fixed in the same position in the sky, as viewed from a particular location on Earth.
- GSLV Mk III is a four-stage launch vehicle with the first and third stages using solid rocket motors, and the second and fourth stages using liquid rocket engines.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- (a) 1 only
- (b) 2 and 3
- (c) 1 and 2
- (d) 3 only
Answer and explanation
Answer: (a) 1 only
PSLV is used mainly for earth-observation and remote-sensing satellites in polar sun-synchronous orbits, while GSLV is designed for heavier communication satellites in geostationary orbit (statement 1). PSLV-launched satellites in polar orbit move across the sky; only geostationary satellites appear fixed (statement 2 incorrect). GSLV Mk III is a three-stage vehicle with two solid boosters, a liquid core and a cryogenic upper stage (statement 3 incorrect). Hence 1 only.
Question 71 · Modern Indian History · Freedom Struggle
The staple commodities of export by the English East India Company from Bengal in the middle of the 18th century were -
- (a) Raw cotton, oil-seeds and opium
- (b) Sugar, salt, zinc and lead
- (c) Copper, silver, gold, spices and tea
- (d) Cotton, silk, saltpetre and opium
Answer and explanation
Answer: (d) Cotton, silk, saltpetre and opium
In the mid-18th century the East India Company's exports from Bengal consisted chiefly of cotton textiles, raw silk and silk goods, saltpetre (for gunpowder) and opium, the trade that made Bengal the richest province for the Company.
Question 72 · Environment and Ecology · Ecology Concepts
With reference to agricultural soils, consider the following statements :
- The high content of organic matter in soil drastically reduces its water holding capacity.
- Soil does not play any role in the sulphur cycle.
- Irrigation over a period of time can contribute to the salinization of some agricultural lands.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- (a) 1 and 2 only
- (b) 3 only
- (c) 1 and 3 only
- (d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer and explanation
Answer: (b) 3 only
Prolonged irrigation, especially with poor drainage, raises the water table and leaves salts in the root zone, salinising land as in parts of Punjab and Haryana (statement 3). Organic matter increases, not reduces, the water-holding capacity of soil (statement 1 incorrect), and soil micro-organisms play a central part in the sulphur cycle (statement 2 incorrect). Hence 3 only.
Question 73 · Modern Indian History · History
Which among the following events happened earliest?
- (a) Swami Dayanand established Arya Samaj.
- (b) Dinabandhu Mitra wrote Neeldarpan.
- (c) Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay wrote Anandmath.
- (d) Satyendranath Tagore became the first Indian to succeed in the Indian Civil Services Examination.
Answer and explanation
Answer: (b) Dinabandhu Mitra wrote Neeldarpan.
Dinabandhu Mitra's play Neel Darpan appeared in 1860, exposing the indigo planters' oppression. Satyendranath Tagore passed the ICS in 1863, Dayanand Saraswati founded the Arya Samaj in 1875, and Bankim Chandra wrote Anandamath in 1882. Hence the earliest is (b).
Question 74 · Economy · Money and Banking
With reference to the governance of public sector banking in India, consider the following statements
- Capital infusion into public sector banks by the Government of India has steadily increased in the last decade.
- To put the public sector banks in order, the merger of associate banks with the parent State Bank of India has been affected.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- (a) 1 only
- (b) 1 and 2
- (c) 2 only
- (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer and explanation
Answer: (c) 2 only
The merger of the five associate banks and the Bharatiya Mahila Bank with the State Bank of India took effect in April 2017 (statement 2). Government capital infusion into public-sector banks has fluctuated from year to year rather than steadily increasing (statement 1 incorrect). Hence 2 only.
Question 75 · Environment and Ecology · Climate Change
With reference to the 'Global Alliance for Climate-Smart Agriculture (GACSA)', which of the following statements is/are correct.
- GACSA is an outcome of the Climate Summit held in Paris in 2015.
- Membership of GACSA does not create any binding obligations.
- India was instrumental in the creation of GACSA.
Select the correct answer using the code given
- (a) 1 and 3 only
- (b) 2 only
- (c) 2 and 3 only
- (d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer and explanation
Answer: (b) 2 only
The Global Alliance for Climate-Smart Agriculture was launched at the UN Climate Summit in New York in September 2014, not Paris 2015 (statement 1 incorrect), and India was not among its founders and has not joined it (statement 3 incorrect). Membership is voluntary and creates no binding obligations (statement 2 correct). Hence 2 only.
Question 76 · Indian Polity and Governance · Constitution and Preamble
Which of the following are regarded as the main features of the "Rule of Law"?
- Limitation of powers
- Equality before law
- People's responsibility to the Government
- Liberty and civil rights
Select the correct answer using the code given below :
- (a) 1 and 3 only
- (b) 2 and 4 only
- (c) 1, 2 and 4 only
- (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer and explanation
Answer: (c) 1, 2 and 4 only
The rule of law, as expounded by A.V. Dicey, means that government power is limited by law, that everyone is equal before the law, and that individual liberty and civil rights are secured by the ordinary law of the land. Responsibility of the people to the government is not part of it. Hence 1, 2 and 4.
Question 77 · Environment and Ecology · Pollution
Which of the following is/are the possible consequence/s of heavy sand mining in riverbeds?
- Decreased salinity in the river
- Pollution of groundwater
- Lowering of the water-table
Select the correct answer using the code given below :
- (a) 1 only
- (b) 2 and 3 only
- (c) 1 and 3 only
- (d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer and explanation
Answer: (b) 2 and 3 only
Heavy sand mining strips the riverbed of the sand layer that stores and filters water, lowering the water table in the surrounding area and exposing groundwater to pollution. It does not decrease salinity; in coastal rivers it can allow seawater to intrude and raise salinity. Hence 2 and 3.
Question 78 · Indian Polity and Governance · Parliament
Regarding Money Bill, which of the following statements is not correct?
- (a) A bill shall be deemed to be a Money Bill if it contains only provisions relating to imposition, abolition, remission, alteration or regulation of any tax.
- (b) A Money Bill has provisions for the custody of the Consolidated Fund of India or the Contingency Fund of India.
- (c) A Money Bill is concerned with the appropriation of money out of the Contingency Fund of India.
- (d) A Money Bill deals with the regulation of borrowing of money or the giving of any guarantee by the Government of India.
Answer and explanation
Answer: (c) A Money Bill is concerned with the appropriation of money out of the Contingency Fund of India.
Under Article 110 a Money Bill deals with taxes, government borrowing and guarantees, custody of the Consolidated Fund and Contingency Fund, and appropriation of money out of the Consolidated Fund of India. Appropriation out of the Contingency Fund is not among the listed matters, so statement (c) is not correct.
Question 79 · Art and Culture · Festivals and Crafts
Consider the following pairs:
Craft Heritage of 1. Puthukkuli shawls Tamil Nadu 2. Sujni embroidery Maharashtra 3. Uppada Jamdani saris Karnataka Which of the pairs given above is/are correct?
- (a) 1 only
- (b) 1 and 2
- (c) 3 only
- (d) 2 and 3
Answer and explanation
Answer: (a) 1 only
Puthukkuli shawls are the embroidered shawls of the Toda people of the Nilgiris in Tamil Nadu, so pair 1 is correct. Sujni embroidery belongs to Bihar (Bhusura, Muzaffarpur), not Maharashtra, and Uppada Jamdani saris are from Andhra Pradesh, not Karnataka. Hence 1 only.
Question 80 · Art and Culture · Festivals and Crafts
With reference to the cultural history of India, consider the following statements :
- White marble was used in making Buland Darwaza and Khankah at Fatehpur Sikri.
- Red sandstone and marble were used in making Bara Imambara and Rumi Darwaza at Lucknow.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- (a) 1 only
- (b) 2 only
- (c) Both 1 and 2
- (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer and explanation
Answer: (d) Neither 1 nor 2
The Buland Darwaza and the khanqah of Shaikh Salim Chishti at Fatehpur Sikri were built mainly of red sandstone (the saint's tomb is in white marble), so statement 1 is incorrect. The Bara Imambara and Rumi Darwaza at Lucknow were built of brick and lime plaster, not red sandstone and marble, so statement 2 is incorrect. Hence none.
Question 81 · Economy · Money and Banking
With reference to India's decision to levy an equalization tax of 6% on online advertisement services offered by non-resident entities, which of the following statements is/are correct?
- It is introduced as a part of the Income Tax Act.
- Non-resident entities that offer advertisement services in India can claim a tax credit in their home country under the "Double Taxation Avoidance Agreements".
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
- (a) 1 only
- (b) 2 only
- (c) Both 1 and 2
- (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer and explanation
Answer: (d) Neither 1 nor 2
The equalisation levy of 2016 was introduced through the Finance Act as a separate levy, not as part of the Income Tax Act, so statement 1 is incorrect. Because it is not an income tax, non-resident entities cannot claim credit for it under double taxation avoidance agreements, so statement 2 is incorrect. Hence none.
Question 82 · Science and Technology · Biology
What is "Terminal High Altitude Area Defense (THAAD)", sometimes seen in the news?
- (a) An Israeli radar system
- (b) India's indigenous anti-missile programme
- (c) An American anti-missile system
- (d) A defence collaboration between Japan and South Korea
Answer and explanation
Answer: (c) An American anti-missile system
THAAD (Terminal High Altitude Area Defence) is a US anti-ballistic-missile system that intercepts short- and medium-range missiles in their terminal phase; its deployment in South Korea in 2017 drew Chinese objections.
Question 83 · Modern Indian History · History
Regarding Wood's Dispatch, which of the following statements are true ?
- Grants-in-Aid system was introduced.
- Establishment of universities was recommended.
- English as a medium of instruction at all levels of education was recommended.
Select the correct answer using the code given below :
- (a) 1 and 2 only
- (b) 2 and 3 only
- (c) 1 and 3 only
- (d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer and explanation
Answer: (a) 1 and 2 only
Wood's Despatch of 1854 recommended a grants-in-aid system to support private schools (statement 1) and the establishment of universities at Calcutta, Bombay and Madras (statement 2). It favoured English for higher education but vernacular languages at the school level, not English at all levels (statement 3 incorrect). Hence 1 and 2.
Question 84 · Indian Polity and Governance · Constitution and Preamble
Consider the following statements
- The Food Safety and Standards Act, 2006 replaced the Prevention of Food Adulteration Act, 1954.
- The Food Safety and Standards Authority of India (FSSAI) is under the charge of Director General of Health Services in the Union Ministry of Health and Family Welfare.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- (a) 1 only
- (b) 2 only
- (c) Both 1 and 2
- (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer and explanation
Answer: (a) 1 only
The Food Safety and Standards Act, 2006 consolidated earlier laws and replaced the Prevention of Food Adulteration Act, 1954 (statement 1). The FSSAI is an autonomous statutory body under the Ministry of Health headed by its own chairperson and CEO, not under the Director General of Health Services (statement 2 incorrect). Hence 1 only.
Question 85 · Environment and Ecology · Ecology Concepts
The Partnership for Action on Green Economy (PAGE), a UN mechanism to assist countries transition towards greener and more inclusive economies, emerged at
- (a) The Earth Summit on Sustainable Development 2002, Johannesburg
- (b) The United Nations Conference on Sustainable Development 2012, Rio de Janeiro
- (c) The United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change 2015, Paris
- (d) The World Sustainable Development Summit 2016, New Delhi
Answer and explanation
Answer: (b) The United Nations Conference on Sustainable Development 2012, Rio de Janeiro
The Partnership for Action on Green Economy was launched in 2013 in response to the outcome document of the 2012 UN Conference on Sustainable Development (Rio+20), 'The Future We Want', which called for support to countries moving to green economies.
Question 86 · Economy · External Sector
With reference to organic farming in India, consider the following statements:
- The National Programme for Organic Production (NPOP) is operated under the guidelines and directions of the Union Ministry of Rural Development.
- The Agricultural and Processed Food Products Export Development Authority (APEDA) functions as the Secretariat for the implementation of NPOP.
- Sikkim has become India's first fully organic State.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- (a) 1 and 2 only
- (b) 2 and 3 only
- (c) 3 only
- (d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer and explanation
Answer: (b) 2 and 3 only
APEDA under the Ministry of Commerce serves as the secretariat for the National Programme for Organic Production (statement 2), and Sikkim became India's first fully organic state in 2016 (statement 3). NPOP is run under the Ministry of Commerce and Industry, not Rural Development (statement 1 incorrect). Hence 2 and 3.
Question 87 · Environment and Ecology · Ecology Concepts
Which of the following leaf modifications occur(s) in the desert areas to inhibit water loss?
- Hard and waxy leaves
- Tiny leaves
- Thorns instead of leaves
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
- (a) 2 and 3 only
- (b) 2 only
- (c) 3 only
- (d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer and explanation
Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3
Desert plants reduce water loss through transpiration with hard, waxy leaves that limit evaporation, tiny leaves with little surface area, and spines or thorns in place of leaves, as in cacti. All three modifications occur.
Question 88 · Indian Society and Schemes · Society and Social Issues
International Labour Organization's Conventions 138 and 182 are related to -
- (a) Child labour
- (b) Adaptation of agricultural practices to global climate change
- (c) Regulation of food prices and food security
- (d) Gender parity at the workplace
Answer and explanation
Answer: (a) Child labour
ILO Convention 138 sets the minimum age for admission to employment and Convention 182 calls for the elimination of the worst forms of child labour. India ratified both in 2017.
Question 89 · Geography · Climate and Monsoon
Consider the following statements -
- Most of the world's coral reefs are in tropical waters.
- More than one-third of the world's coral reefs are located in the territories of Australia, Indonesia and the Philippines.
- Coral reefs host far more number of animal phyla than those hosted by tropical rainforests.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- (a) 1 and 2 only
- (b) 3 only
- (c) 1 and 3 only
- (d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer and explanation
Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3
Coral reefs occur mostly in warm tropical waters (statement 1), and the 'coral triangle' countries of Indonesia, the Philippines and Australia hold over a third of the world's reefs (statement 2). Reefs harbour representatives of 32 of the 34 animal phyla, more than tropical rainforests (statement 3). All three are correct.
Question 90 · Science and Technology · Biotechnology
With reference to the Genetically Modified mustard (GM mustard) developed in India, consider the following statements :
- GM mustard has the genes of a soil bacterium that gives the plant the property of pest-resistance to a wide variety of pests.
- GM mustard has the genes that allow the plant cross-pollination and hybridization.
- GM mustard has been developed jointly by the IARI and Punjab Agricultural University.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- (a) 1 and 3 only
- (b) 2 only
- (c) 2 and 3 only
- (d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer and explanation
Answer: (b) 2 only
DMH-11 GM mustard carries the barnase-barstar genes from the soil bacterium Bacillus amyloliquefaciens, which create male-sterile and restorer lines to enable cross-pollination and hybrid-seed production (statement 2). It is not pest-resistant (statement 1 incorrect), and it was developed by Delhi University's Centre for Genetic Manipulation of Crop Plants, not IARI and PAU (statement 3 incorrect). Hence 2 only.
Question 91 · Art and Culture · Dance and Music
Consider the following pairs :
Tradition State 1. Chapchar Kut festival Mizoram 2. Khongjom Parba ballad Manipur 3. Thang-Ta dance Sikkim Which of the pairs given above is/are correct ?
- (a) 1 only
- (b) 1 and 2
- (c) 3 only
- (d) 2 and 3
Answer and explanation
Answer: (b) 1 and 2
Chapchar Kut is the spring festival of Mizoram and Khongjom Parba is a Manipuri ballad tradition sung to the dholak, so pairs 1 and 2 are correct. Thang-Ta is the martial art of Manipur, not a dance of Sikkim. Hence 1 and 2.
Question 92 · Modern Indian History · History
Which one of the following foreign travellers elaborately discussed about diamonds and diamond mines of India?
- (a) Francois Bernier
- (b) Jean-Baptiste Tavernier
- (c) Jean de Thevenot
- (d) Abbe Barthelemy Carre
Answer and explanation
Answer: (b) Jean-Baptiste Tavernier
Jean-Baptiste Tavernier, the French gem merchant who travelled to India six times in the 17th century, described the diamond mines of Golconda and Kollur in detail in his 'Six Voyages' and is said to have sold the Hope diamond.
Question 93 · Environment and Ecology · Climate Change
Consider the following statements:
- The definition of "Critical Wildlife Habitat" is incorporated in the Forest Rights Act, 2006.
- For the first time in India, Baigas have been given Habitat Rights.
- Union Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change officially decides and declares Habitat Rights for Primitive and Vulnerable Tribal Groups in any part of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
- (a) 1 and 2 only
- (b) 2 and 3 only
- (c) 3 only
- (d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer and explanation
Answer: (a) 1 and 2 only
The Forest Rights Act, 2006 defines 'critical wildlife habitat' (statement 1), and in 2016 the Baigas of Madhya Pradesh became the first community to receive habitat rights under the Act (statement 2). Habitat rights are recognised by the district-level committees and the state government under the Act, not declared by the Union Environment Ministry (statement 3 incorrect). Hence 1 and 2.
Question 94 · Economy · Economy
Increase in absolute and per capita real GNP do not connote a higher level of economic development, if -
- (a) industrial output fails to keep pace with agricultural output.
- (b) agricultural output fails to keep pace with industrial output.
- (c) poverty and unemployment increase.
- (d) imports grow faster than exports.
Answer and explanation
Answer: (c) poverty and unemployment increase.
Economic development means not just growth of output but improvement in people's lives. If real GNP and per capita GNP rise while poverty and unemployment also increase, the growth has not translated into development.
Question 95 · Environment and Ecology · Climate Change
Which of the following statements best describes "carbon fertilization"?
- (a) Increased plant growth due to increased concentration of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere
- (b) Increased temperature of Earth due to increased concentration of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere
- (c) Increased acidity of oceans as a result of increased concentration of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere
- (d) Adaptation of all living beings on Earth to the climate change brought about by the increased concentration of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere
Answer and explanation
Answer: (a) Increased plant growth due to increased concentration of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere
Carbon fertilisation (the CO2 fertilisation effect) is the increase in plant growth and photosynthesis caused by higher concentrations of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere, which partly offsets climate change by absorbing more carbon.
Question 96 · Economy · Money and Banking
Consider the following statements:
- The Reserve Bank of India manages and services Government of India Securities but not any State Government Securities.
- Treasury bills are issued by the Government of India and there are no treasury bills issued by the State Governments.
- Treasury bills are issued at a discount from the par value.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- (a) 1 and 2 only
- (b) 3 Only
- (c) 2 and 3 only
- (d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer and explanation
Answer: (c) 2 and 3 only
The RBI manages the public debt of both the Centre and the states (statement 1 incorrect). Treasury bills are issued only by the Government of India; states issue dated securities but not T-bills (statement 2), and T-bills are zero-coupon instruments sold at a discount and redeemed at par (statement 3). Hence 2 and 3.
Question 97 · Geography · Resources and Industry
Consider the following statements:
- In India, State Governments do not have the power to auction non-coal mines.
- Andhra Pradesh and Jharkhand do not have gold mines.
- Rajasthan has iron ore mines.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- (a) 1 and 2
- (b) 2 only
- (c) 1 and 3
- (d) 3 only
Answer and explanation
Answer: (d) 3 only
Rajasthan has iron-ore deposits in Jaipur and Udaipur districts (statement 3). State governments do auction non-coal mineral concessions under the MMDR Amendment Act, 2015 (statement 1 incorrect), and Andhra Pradesh (Ramagiri) and Jharkhand (Parasi) do have gold mines (statement 2 incorrect). Hence 3 only.
Question 98 · Economy · Economy
Which one of the following best describes the term "Merchant Discount Rate" sometimes seen in the news?
- (a) The incentive is given by a bank to a merchant for accepting payments through debit cards pertaining to that bank.
- (b) The amount paid back by banks to their customers when they use debit cards for financial transactions for purchasing goods or services.
- (c) The charge to a merchant by a bank for accepting payments from his customers through the bank's debit cards.
- (d) The incentive given by the Government, to merchants for promoting digital payments by their customers through Point of Sale PoS machines and debit cards.
Answer and explanation
Answer: (c) The charge to a merchant by a bank for accepting payments from his customers through the bank's debit cards.
The merchant discount rate is the fee a merchant pays to the acquiring bank (shared with the card-issuing bank and the payment network) for accepting payments through debit or credit cards and digital modes; the RBI regulates its ceiling.
Question 99 · Environment and Ecology · Species in News
With reference to the circumstances in Indian agriculture, the concept of "Conservation Agriculture" assumes significance. Which of the following fall under the Conservation Agriculture?
- Avoiding monoculture practices
- Adopting minimum tillage
- Avoiding the cultivation of plantation crops
- Using crop residues to cover the soil surface
- Adopting spatial and temporal crop sequencing/crop rotations
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
- (a) 1, 3 and 4
- (b) 2, 3, 4 and 5
- (c) 2, 4 and 5
- (d) 1, 2, 3 and 5
Answer and explanation
Answer: (c) 2, 4 and 5
Conservation agriculture rests on three principles: minimum soil disturbance (minimum tillage), permanent soil cover using crop residues, and diversified crop rotations and sequences. It does not require avoiding plantation crops, and avoiding monoculture is covered by crop rotation rather than being a separate principle. Hence 2, 4 and 5.
Question 100 · Geography · Indian Physiography and Drainage
Which one of the following is an artificial lake?
- (a) Kodaikanal Tamil Nadu
- (b) Kolleru Andhra Pradesh
- (c) Nainital Uttarakhand
- (d) Renuka Himachal Pradesh
Answer and explanation
Answer: (a) Kodaikanal Tamil Nadu
Kodaikanal Lake in Tamil Nadu is a star-shaped artificial lake created in 1863 by Sir Vere Levinge, the Collector of Madurai. Kolleru, Nainital and Renuka are natural lakes.
