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    UPSC Prelims 2019 Question Paper (GS Paper I) with Answers

    All 100 questions of the 2019 Civil Services Preliminary Examination, General Studies Paper I, in the official order. Each question has the official answer and an explanation; open “Answer and explanation” after you try it yourself.

    Attempt Prelims 2019 as a timed test

    Questions by subject in 2019

    1. Question 1 · Science and Technology · Biology

      Which one of the following statements is not correct?

      1. (a) Hepatitis B virus is transmitted much like HIV.
      2. (b) Hepatitis B, unlike Hepatitis C, does not have a vaccine.
      3. (c) Globally, the number of people infected with Hepatitis B and C viruses are several times more than those infected with HIV.
      4. (d) Some of those infected with Hepatitis B and C viruses do not show the symptoms for many years.
      Answer and explanation

      Answer: (b) Hepatitis B, unlike Hepatitis C, does not have a vaccine.

      Statement (b) is the incorrect one: a safe and effective vaccine against Hepatitis B has existed since the 1980s and is part of India's universal immunisation programme; it is Hepatitis C that has no vaccine. Hepatitis B spreads like HIV through blood, sexual contact and from mother to child, the two viruses infect several times more people than HIV, and chronic infection can stay silent for years.

    2. Question 2 · Medieval History · Medieval India

      Consider the following statements:

      1. In the revenue administration of Delhi Sultanate, the in-charge of revenue collection was known as 'Amil'.
      2. The Iqta system of Sultans of Delhi was an ancient indigenous institution.
      3. The office of 'Mir Bakshi' came into existence during the reign of Khalji Sultans of Delhi.

      Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

      1. (a) 1 only
      2. (b) 1 and 2 only
      3. (c) 3 only
      4. (d) 1, 2 and 3
      Answer and explanation

      Answer: (a) 1 only

      In the Delhi Sultanate the amil was the officer who collected revenue (statement 1 correct). The iqta, a transferable revenue assignment, was brought from the Islamic world by the Turks, not an ancient Indian institution (statement 2 incorrect), and the office of Mir Bakhshi (head of military administration) belongs to the Mughal period, not the Khaljis (statement 3 incorrect). Hence 1 only.

    3. Question 3 · Economy · Money and Banking

      The money multiplier in an economy increases with which one of the following?

      1. (a) Increase in the cash reserve ratio
      2. (b) Increase in the banking habits of the population
      3. (c) Increase in the statutory liquidity ratio
      4. (d) Increase in the population of the country
      Answer and explanation

      Answer: (b) Increase in the banking habits of the population

      The money multiplier rises when people deposit more of their money in banks instead of holding cash, because banks can lend out most of each deposit and create further deposits. Higher CRR or SLR reduces the funds banks can lend and lowers the multiplier; population size does not affect it.

    4. Question 4 · Environment and Ecology · Ecology Concepts

      In India, 'extended producer responsibility' was introduced as an important feature in which of the following?

      1. (a) The Bio-medical Waste Management and Handling Rules, 1998
      2. (b) The Recycled Plastic Manufacturing and Usage Rules, 1999
      3. (c) The e-Waste Management and Handling Rules, 2011
      4. (d) The Food Safety and Standard Regulations, 2011
      Answer and explanation

      Answer: (c) The e-Waste Management and Handling Rules, 2011

      Extended producer responsibility, under which producers must take back and manage the end-of-life disposal of their products, was introduced in India by the E-waste (Management and Handling) Rules, 2011, which made producers of electrical and electronic equipment responsible for collecting and recycling e-waste.

    5. Question 5 · Modern Indian History · Freedom Struggle

      With reference to the British colonial rule in India, consider the following statements:

      1. Mahatma Gandhi was instrumental in the abolition of the system of 'indentured labour'.
      2. In Lord Chelmsford's 'War Conference', Mahatma Gandhi did not support the resolution on recruiting Indians for World War.
      3. Consequent upon the breaking of Salt Law by Indian people, the Indian National Congress was declared illegal by the colonial rulers.

      Which of the statements given above are correct?

      1. (a) 1 and 2 only
      2. (b) 1 and 3 only
      3. (c) 2 and 3 only
      4. (d) 1, 2 and 3
      Answer and explanation

      Answer: (b) 1 and 3 only

      Gandhi's campaign led to the abolition of the indentured labour system in 1917 (statement 1), and after the Salt March the government declared the Congress illegal in 1930 (statement 3). At Lord Chelmsford's War Conference in Delhi in 1918 Gandhi supported the resolution on recruiting Indians for the war, so statement 2 is incorrect. Hence 1 and 3.

    6. Question 6 · Geography · Indian Physiography and Drainage

      Consider the following pairs: Famous place : River

      1. Pandharpur : Chandrabhaga
      2. Tiruchirappalli : Cauvery
      3. Hampi : Malaprabha

      Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

      1. (a) 1 and 2 only
      2. (b) 2 and 3 only
      3. (c) 1 and 3 only
      4. (d) 1, 2 and 3
      Answer and explanation

      Answer: (a) 1 and 2 only

      Pandharpur stands on the Chandrabhaga (Bhima) and Tiruchirappalli on the Cauvery, so pairs 1 and 2 are correct. Hampi, the Vijayanagara capital, lies on the Tungabhadra, not the Malaprabha (which flows past Aihole and Pattadakal). Hence 1 and 2.

    7. Question 7 · Ancient History · Ancient India

      With reference to forced labour (Vishti) in India during the Gupta period, which one of the following statements is correct?

      1. (a) It was considered a source of income for the State, a sort of tax paid by the people.
      2. (b) It was totally absent in the Madhya Pradesh and Kathiawar regions of the Gupta Empire.
      3. (c) The forced labourer was entitled to weekly wages.
      4. (d) The eldest son of the labourer was sent as the forced labourer.
      Answer and explanation

      Answer: (a) It was considered a source of income for the State, a sort of tax paid by the people.

      Vishti, forced labour exacted by the state, is mentioned in Gupta inscriptions as a source of income for the state, a kind of tax paid in labour by the people, particularly in Madhya Pradesh and Kathiawar. The labourer received no wages and there was no rule about the eldest son.

    8. Question 8 · Modern Indian History · History

      Which one of the following groups of plants were domesticated in the 'New World' and introduced into the 'Old World'?

      1. (a) Tobacco, cocoa and rubber
      2. (b) Tobacco, cotton and rubber
      3. (c) Cotton, coffee and sugarcane
      4. (d) Rubber, coffee and wheat
      Answer and explanation

      Answer: (a) Tobacco, cocoa and rubber

      Tobacco, cocoa and rubber are all native to the Americas (the 'New World') and were carried to Europe, Asia and Africa after Columbus. Cotton, coffee, sugarcane and wheat were domesticated in the Old World (Asia and Africa).

    9. Question 9 · Science and Technology · Biotechnology

      What is Cas9 protein that is often mentioned in the news?

      1. (a) A molecular scissors used in targeted gene editing
      2. (b) A biosensor used in the accurate detection of pathogens in patients
      3. (c) A gene that makes plants pest-resistant
      4. (d) A herbicidal substance synthesized in genetically modified crops
      Answer and explanation

      Answer: (a) A molecular scissors used in targeted gene editing

      Cas9 is the enzyme of the CRISPR-Cas9 system that acts as 'molecular scissors': guided by an RNA sequence, it cuts DNA at a chosen site so that genes can be removed, edited or inserted. It is the basis of today's targeted gene-editing technology.

    10. Question 10 · Science and Technology · Biology

      Consider the following statements :

      1. According to the Indian Patents Act, a biological process to create a seed can be patented in India.
      2. In India, there is no Intellectual Property Appellate Board.
      3. Plant varieties are not eligible to be patented in India.

      Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

      1. (a) 1 and 3 only
      2. (b) 2 and 3 only
      3. (c) 3 only
      4. (d) 1, 2 and 3
      Answer and explanation

      Answer: (c) 3 only

      Section 3(j) of the Patents Act excludes plants, animals and essentially biological processes for producing them from patentability, so statement 3 is correct and statement 1 is incorrect. India did have an Intellectual Property Appellate Board at the time (it was abolished only in 2021), so statement 2 is incorrect. Hence 3 only.

    11. Question 11 · Economy · Infrastructure

      With reference to India's Five-Year Plans, which of the following statements is/are correct?

      1. From the Second Five-Year Plan, there was a determined thrust towards substitution of basic and capital goods industries.
      2. The Fourth Five-Year Plan adopted the objective of correcting the earlier trend of increased concentration of wealth and economic power.
      3. In the Fifth Five-Year Plan, for the first time, the financial sector was included as an integral part of the Plan.

      Select the correct answer using the code given below.

      1. (a) 1 and 2 only
      2. (b) 2 only
      3. (c) 3 only
      4. (d) 1, 2 and 3
      Answer and explanation

      Answer: (a) 1 and 2 only

      The Second Plan (1956-61), based on the Mahalanobis model, gave a decisive push to basic and capital-goods industries (statement 1), and the Fourth Plan (1969-74) adopted the objective of reducing the concentration of wealth and economic power (statement 2). The financial sector was not first integrated into planning in the Fifth Plan, so statement 3 is incorrect. Hence 1 and 2.

    12. Question 12 · Indian Society and Schemes · Society and Social Issues

      In a given year in India, official poverty lines are higher in some States than in others because

      1. (a) poverty rates vary from State to State
      2. (b) price levels vary from State to State
      3. (c) Gross State Product varies from State to State
      4. (d) quality of public distribution varies from State to State
      Answer and explanation

      Answer: (b) price levels vary from State to State

      Poverty lines express the money needed to buy a basic basket of goods and services, and since price levels differ across states the Planning Commission and the Tendulkar and Rangarajan committees fixed state-specific poverty lines. Higher prices in a state mean a higher poverty line there.

    13. Question 13 · Environment and Ecology · Ecology Concepts

      Consider the following statements:

      1. Agricultural soils release nitrogen oxides into the environment.
      2. Cattle release ammonia into the environment.
      3. Poultry industry releases reactive nitrogen compounds into environment.

      Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

      1. (a) 1 and 3 only
      2. (b) 2 and 3 only
      3. (c) 2 only
      4. (d) 1, 2 and 3
      Answer and explanation

      Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3

      Nitrogen fertilisers in agricultural soils are converted by microbes into nitrous and nitric oxides; cattle excreta release ammonia; and poultry litter releases ammonia and other reactive nitrogen compounds. All three statements are correct, as documented in the Indian Nitrogen Assessment.

    14. Question 14 · Environment and Ecology · Climate Change

      In the context of proposals to the use of hydrogen-enriched CNG (H-CNG) as fuel for buses in public transport, consider the following statements :

      1. The main advantage of the use of H-CNG is the elimination of carbon monoxide emissions.
      2. H-CNG as fuel reduces carbon dioxide and hydrocarbon emissions.
      3. Hydrogen up to one-fifth by volume can be blended with CNG as fuel for buses.
      4. H-CNG makes the fuel less expensive than CNG.

      Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

      1. (a) 1 only
      2. (b) 2 and 3 only
      3. (c) 4 only
      4. (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
      Answer and explanation

      Answer: (b) 2 and 3 only

      Hydrogen-enriched CNG cuts carbon monoxide, carbon dioxide and hydrocarbon emissions but does not eliminate CO altogether (statement 1 incorrect, statement 2 correct). Hydrogen up to about 18-20 per cent by volume can be blended with CNG (statement 3 correct). H-CNG is somewhat costlier than CNG, not cheaper (statement 4 incorrect). Hence 2 and 3.

    15. Question 15 · Environment and Ecology · Indian Laws and Policies

      Consider the following statements:

      1. As per law, the Compensatory Afforestation Fund Management and Planning Authority exists at both National and State levels.
      2. People's participation is mandatory in the compensatory afforestation programmes carried out under the Compensatory Afforestation Fund Act, 2016.

      Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

      1. (a) 1 only
      2. (b) 2 only
      3. (c) Both 1 and 2
      4. (d) Neither 1 nor 2
      Answer and explanation

      Answer: (a) 1 only

      The Compensatory Afforestation Fund Act, 2016 establishes a National Authority and State Authorities to manage the funds (statement 1). It does not make people's participation mandatory, which was one of the criticisms of the Act (statement 2 incorrect). Hence 1 only.

    16. Question 16 · Economy · Economy

      With reference to land reforms in independent India, which one of the following statements is correct?

      1. (a) The ceiling laws were aimed at family holdings and not individual holdings.
      2. (b) The major aim of land reforms was providing agricultural land to all the landless.
      3. (c) It resulted in cultivation of cash crops as a predominant form of cultivation.
      4. (d) Land reforms permitted no exemptions to the ceiling limits.
      Answer and explanation

      Answer: (b) The major aim of land reforms was providing agricultural land to all the landless.

      The ceiling legislation of the 1970s, following the national guidelines of 1972, made the family rather than the individual the unit for applying ceilings, so that holdings could not be split among members to evade the limit. The major aim of land reforms was to abolish intermediaries and give security to tenants, not to give land to all the landless; they did not make cash crops predominant; and exemptions (for plantations, orchards, etc.) were permitted.

    17. Question 17 · Indian Polity and Governance · Amendments and Basic Structure

      Under which Schedule of the Constitution of India can the transfer of tribal land to private parties for mining be declared null and void?

      1. (a) Third Schedule
      2. (b) Fifth Schedule
      3. (c) Ninth Schedule
      4. (d) Twelfth Schedule
      Answer and explanation

      Answer: (b) Fifth Schedule

      Under paragraph 5 of the Fifth Schedule the Governor may make regulations prohibiting or restricting the transfer of land by or among Scheduled Tribes in Scheduled Areas; in the Samatha case (1997) the Supreme Court held that transfer of tribal land to private mining companies in such areas is null and void.

    18. Question 18 · Indian Polity and Governance · Parliament

      Consider the following statements :

      1. The motion to impeach a Judge of the Supreme Court of India cannot be rejected by the Speaker of the Lok Sabha as per the Judges (Inquiry) Act, 1968.
      2. The Constitution of India defines and gives details of what constitutes 'incapacity and proved misbehaviour' of the Judges of the Supreme Court of India.
      3. The details of the process of impeachment of the Judges of the Supreme Court of India are given in the Judges (Inquiry) Act, 1968.
      4. If the motion for the impeachment of a Judge is taken up for voting, the law requires the motion to be backed by each House of the Parliament and supported by a majority of the total membership of that House and by not less than two-thirds of total members of that House present and voting.

      Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

      1. (a) 1 and 2
      2. (b) 3 only
      3. (c) 3 and 4 only
      4. (d) 1, 3 and 4
      Answer and explanation

      Answer: (c) 3 and 4 only

      The Judges (Inquiry) Act, 1968 lays down the procedure for removing a Supreme Court judge (statement 3), and Article 124(4) requires the address to be passed by each House with a majority of the total membership and two-thirds of those present and voting (statement 4). The Speaker or Chairman can admit or refuse a removal motion (statement 1 incorrect), and the Constitution does not define 'proved misbehaviour or incapacity' (statement 2 incorrect). Hence 3 and 4.

    19. Question 19 · Indian Polity and Governance · Constitution and Preamble

      With reference to the management of minor minerals in India consider the following statements:

      1. Sand is a 'minor mineral' according to the prevailing law in the country.
      2. State Governments have the power to grant mining leases of minor minerals, but the powers regarding the formation of rules related to the grant of minor minerals lie with the Central Government.
      3. State Governments have the power to frame rules to prevent illegal mining of minor minerals.

      Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

      1. (a) 1 and 3 only
      2. (b) 2 and 3 only
      3. (c) 3 only
      4. (d) 1, 2 and 3
      Answer and explanation

      Answer: (a) 1 and 3 only

      Sand is a minor mineral under the MMDR Act, 1957 (statement 1), and under section 15 the state governments make the rules for granting leases of minor minerals and under section 23C frame rules to prevent their illegal mining (statement 3). The rule-making power for minor minerals lies with the states, not the Centre, so statement 2 is incorrect. Hence 1 and 3.

    20. Question 20 · Geography · Oceans

      Consider the following pairs:

      Sea BorderingCountry
      1. Adriatic SeaAlbania
      2. Black SeaCroatia
      3. Caspian SeaKazakhstan
      4. Mediterranean SeaMorocco
      5. Red SeaSyria

      Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

      1. (a) 1, 2 and 4 only
      2. (b) 1, 3 and 4 only
      3. (c) 2 and 5 only
      4. (d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
      Answer and explanation

      Answer: (b) 1, 3 and 4 only

      Albania borders the Adriatic Sea, Kazakhstan the Caspian Sea and Morocco the Mediterranean, so pairs 1, 3 and 4 are correct. Croatia is on the Adriatic, not the Black Sea, and Syria has a Mediterranean coast, not a Red Sea one. Hence 1, 3 and 4.

    21. Question 21 · Science and Technology · Biotechnology

      In the context of digital technologies for entertainment, consider the following statements:

      1. In Augmented Reality (AR), a simulated environment is created and the physical world is completely shut out.
      2. In Virtual Reality (VR), images generated from a computer are projected into real-life objects or surroundings.
      3. AR allows individuals to be present in the world and improves the experience using the camera of smart-phone or PC.
      4. VR closes the world, and transposes an individual, providing complete immersion experience.

      Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

      1. (a) 1 and 2 only
      2. (b) 3 and 4
      3. (c) 1, 2 and 3
      4. (d) 4 only
      Answer and explanation

      Answer: (b) 3 and 4

      Augmented reality overlays computer-generated images on the real world seen through a smartphone or PC camera, enhancing rather than replacing it, so statements 3 is correct and 1 and 2 (which swap the definitions) are incorrect. Virtual reality shuts out the physical world and immerses the user in a simulated environment, so statement 4 is correct. Hence 3 and 4.

    22. Question 22 · Indian Polity and Governance · Fundamental Rights and Duties

      With reference to the Constitution of India, prohibitions or limitations or provisions contained in ordinary laws cannot act as prohibitions or limitations on the constitutional powers under Article 142. It could mean which one of the following?

      1. (a) The decisions taken by the Election Commission of India while discharging its duties cannot be challenged in any court of law.
      2. (b) The Supreme Court of India is not constrained in the exercise of its powers by laws made by the Parliament.
      3. (c) In the event of grave financial crisis in the country, the President of India can declare Financial Emergency without the counsel from the Cabinet.
      4. (d) State legislatures cannot make laws on certain matters without the concurrence of Union Legislature.
      Answer and explanation

      Answer: (b) The Supreme Court of India is not constrained in the exercise of its powers by laws made by the Parliament.

      Article 142 empowers the Supreme Court to pass any decree or order necessary for doing complete justice in a case before it. The Court has held that limitations in ordinary statutes cannot restrict this constitutional power, which means the Supreme Court is not constrained in exercising it by laws made by Parliament.

    23. Question 23 · Economy · External Sector

      Among the agricultural commodities imported by India, which one of the following accounts for the highest imports in terms of value in the last five years?

      1. (a) Spices
      2. (b) Fresh fruits
      3. (c) Pulses
      4. (d) Vegetable oils
      Answer and explanation

      Answer: (d) Vegetable oils

      Vegetable oils (palm, soyabean and sunflower oil) are India's largest agricultural import by value, costing over Rs 1 lakh crore a year as India meets more than half of its edible-oil demand through imports; pulses are the next largest.

    24. Question 24 · Economy · External Sector

      Consider the following statements:

      1. Purchasing Power Parity (PPP) exchange rates are calculated by comparing the prices of the same basket of goods and services in different countries.
      2. In terms of PPP dollars, India is the sixth largest economy in the world.

      Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

      1. (a) 1 only
      2. (b) 2 only
      3. (c) Both 1 and 2
      4. (d) Neither 1 nor 2
      Answer and explanation

      Answer: (a) 1 only

      PPP exchange rates compare the prices of the same basket of goods and services across countries, so statement 1 is correct. In PPP terms India is the third-largest economy in the world after China and the USA, not the sixth, so statement 2 is incorrect.

    25. Question 25 · Environment and Ecology · Pollution

      As per the Solid Waste Management Rules, 2016 in India, which one of the following statements is correct?

      1. (a) Waste generator has to segregate waste into five categories.
      2. (b) The Rules are applicable to notified urban local bodies, notified towns and all industrial townships only.
      3. (c) The Rules provide for exact and elaborate criteria for the identification of sites for landfills and waste processing facilities.
      4. (d) It is mandatory on the part of waste generator that the waste generated in one district cannot be moved to another district.
      Answer and explanation

      Answer: (c) The Rules provide for exact and elaborate criteria for the identification of sites for landfills and waste processing facilities.

      Schedule I of the Solid Waste Management Rules, 2016 lays down detailed criteria for selecting sites for sanitary landfills and waste-processing facilities, so option (c) is correct. The rules require segregation into three streams (not five), apply to all urban and census towns, notified industrial townships and other areas, and do not bar movement of waste between districts.

    26. Question 26 · Environment and Ecology · Biodiversity and Protected Areas

      Which of the following are in Agasthyamala Biosphere Reserve?

      1. (a) Neyyar, Peppara and Shendurney Wildlife Sanctuaries; and Kalakad Mundanthurai Tiger Reserve
      2. (b) Mudumalai, Sathyamangalam and Wayanad Wildlife Sanctuaries; and Silent Valley National Park
      3. (c) Kaundinya, Gundla Brahmeswaram and Papikonda Wildlife Sanctuaries; and Mukurthi National Park
      4. (d) Kawal and Sri Venkateswara Wildlife Sanctuaries; and Nagarjunasagar-Srisailam Tiger Reserve
      Answer and explanation

      Answer: (a) Neyyar, Peppara and Shendurney Wildlife Sanctuaries; and Kalakad Mundanthurai Tiger Reserve

      The Agasthyamala Biosphere Reserve at the southern end of the Western Ghats, straddling Kerala and Tamil Nadu, includes the Neyyar, Peppara and Shendurney wildlife sanctuaries of Kerala and the Kalakad-Mundanthurai Tiger Reserve of Tamil Nadu. The other groups belong to the Nilgiri and other reserves.

    27. Question 27 · Art and Culture · Festivals and Crafts

      Consider the following statements:

      1. Saint Nimbarka was a contemporary of Akbar.
      2. Saint Kabir was greatly influenced by Shaikh Ahmad Sirhindi.

      Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

      1. (a) 1 only
      2. (b) 2 only
      3. (c) Both 1 and 2
      4. (d) Neither 1 nor 2
      Answer and explanation

      Answer: (d) Neither 1 nor 2

      Nimbarka, the Vaishnava philosopher of dvaitadvaita, lived in the 12th-13th century, long before Akbar (statement 1 incorrect). Kabir (15th century) preceded Shaikh Ahmad Sirhindi (1564-1624), the Naqshbandi sufi who criticised Akbar's eclecticism, so he could not have been influenced by him (statement 2 incorrect). Hence neither.

    28. Question 28 · Science and Technology · IT and Emerging Tech

      With reference to communication technologies, what is/are the difference/differences between LTE (Long-Term Evolution) and VoLTE (Voice over Long-Term Evolution)?

      1. LTE is commonly marketed as 3G and VoLTE is commonly marketed as advanced 3G.
      2. LTE is data-only technology and VoLTE is voice-only technology.

      Select the correct answer using the code given below.

      1. (a) 1 only
      2. (b) 2 only
      3. (c) Both 1 and 2
      4. (d) Neither 1 nor 2
      Answer and explanation

      Answer: (d) Neither 1 nor 2

      LTE is the 4G standard, not 3G, so statement 1 is incorrect. LTE carries data, and VoLTE is the technology for carrying voice calls as data packets over the same LTE network; VoLTE is therefore not a voice-only technology separate from data, so statement 2 is also incorrect. Hence neither.

    29. Question 29 · Indian Society and Schemes · Society and Social Issues

      Consider the following statements:

      1. As per recent amendment to the Indian Forest Act, 1927, forest dwellers have the right to fell the bamboos grown on forest areas.
      2. As per the Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006, bamboo is a minor forest produce.
      3. The Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006 allows ownership of minor forest produce to forest dwellers.

      Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

      1. (a) 1 and 2 only
      2. (b) 2 and 3 only
      3. (c) 3 only
      4. (d) 1, 2 and 3
      Answer and explanation

      Answer: (b) 2 and 3 only

      The Indian Forest (Amendment) Act, 2017 removed bamboo grown outside forests from the definition of 'tree', freeing it from felling permits; it did not give forest dwellers the right to fell bamboo in forest areas (statement 1 incorrect). The Forest Rights Act, 2006 lists bamboo as a minor forest produce (statement 2) and grants forest dwellers ownership of minor forest produce (statement 3). Hence 2 and 3.

    30. Question 30 · Science and Technology · Physics

      Recently, scientists observed the merger of giant 'blackholes' billions of light-years away from the Earth. What is the significance of this observation?

      1. (a) 'Higgs boson particles' were detected.
      2. (b) 'Gravitational waves' were detected.
      3. (c) Possibility of intergalactic space travel through 'wormhole' was confirmed.
      4. (d) It enabled the scientists to understand 'singularity'.
      Answer and explanation

      Answer: (b) 'Gravitational waves' were detected.

      The merger of two giant black holes billions of light-years away was observed by the LIGO and Virgo detectors through the gravitational waves it emitted, ripples in space-time predicted by Einstein's general relativity and first detected in 2015.

    31. Question 31 · Modern Indian History · History

      With reference to Mian Tansen, which one of the following statements is not correct?

      1. (a) Tansen was the title given to him by Emperor Akbar
      2. (b) Tansen composed Dhrupads on Hindu gods and goddesses.
      3. (c) Tansen composed songs on his patrons.
      4. (d) Tansen invented many Ragas.
      Answer and explanation

      Answer: (a) Tansen was the title given to him by Emperor Akbar

      The title 'Tansen' was conferred by Raja Vikramjit of Gwalior, not by Akbar, who later made him one of the navaratnas of his court; so statement (a) is the incorrect one. Tansen composed dhrupads on Hindu deities and on his patrons, and created ragas such as Miyan ki Malhar and Darbari Kanada.

    32. Question 32 · Indian Polity and Governance · Parliament

      In India, which of the following review the independent regulators in sectors like telecommunications, insurance, electricity, etc.?

      1. Ad Hoc Committees set up by the Parliament
      2. Parliamentary Department Related Standing Committees
      3. Finance Commission
      4. Financial Sector Legislative Reforms Commission
      5. NITI Aayog

      Select the correct answer using the code given below:

      1. (a) 1 and 2
      2. (b) 1, 3 and 4
      3. (c) 3, 4 and 5
      4. (d) 2 and 5
      Answer and explanation

      Answer: (a) 1 and 2

      Independent regulators such as TRAI, IRDAI and the CERC are reviewed by Parliament through its ad hoc committees and the department-related standing committees, which examine their working and reports. The Finance Commission, the FSLRC and NITI Aayog do not review regulators. Hence 1 and 2.

    33. Question 33 · Geography · Soils and Vegetation

      Consider the following states:

      1. Chhattisgarh
      2. Madhya Pradesh
      3. Maharashtra
      4. Odisha With reference to the States mentioned above, in terms of percentage of forest cover to the total area of State, which one of the following is the correct ascending order?
      1. (a) 2-3-1-4
      2. (b) 2-3-4-1
      3. (c) 3-2-4-1
      4. (d) 3-2-1-4
      Answer and explanation

      Answer: (c) 3-2-4-1

      According to the India State of Forest Report, forest cover as a share of state area is about 16.5 per cent in Maharashtra, 25 per cent in Madhya Pradesh, 33 per cent in Odisha and 44 per cent in Chhattisgarh. In ascending order: Maharashtra (3), Madhya Pradesh (2), Odisha (4), Chhattisgarh (1), i.e. 3-2-4-1.

    34. Question 34 · Indian Polity and Governance · Judiciary

      Consider the following statements :

      1. The 44th Amendment to the Constitution of India introduced an Article placing the election of the Prime Minister beyond judicial review.
      2. The Supreme Court of India struck down the 99th Amendment to the Constitution of India as being violative of the independence of the judiciary.

      Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

      1. (a) 1 only
      2. (b) 2 only
      3. (c) Both 1 and 2
      4. (d) Neither 1 nor 2
      Answer and explanation

      Answer: (b) 2 only

      It was the 39th Amendment (1975) that placed the election of the Prime Minister beyond judicial review; the 44th Amendment (1978) undid such Emergency-era changes, so statement 1 is incorrect. In 2015 the Supreme Court struck down the 99th Amendment creating the National Judicial Appointments Commission as violating judicial independence, so statement 2 is correct.

    35. Question 35 · Economy · Economy

      Consider the following statements :

      1. Petroleum and Natural Gas Regulatory Board (PNGRB) is the first regulatory body set up by the Government of India.
      2. One of the tasks of PNGRB is to ensure competitive markets for gas.
      3. Appeals against the decisions of PNGRB go before the Appellate Tribunals for Electricity.

      Which of the statements given above are correct?

      1. (a) 1 and 2 only
      2. (b) 2 and 3 only
      3. (c) 1 and 3 only
      4. (d) 1, 2 and 3
      Answer and explanation

      Answer: (b) 2 and 3 only

      The PNGRB, set up in 2007, regulates refining, transport and marketing of petroleum and gas and is tasked with fostering competitive markets for gas (statement 2); appeals against its orders lie to the Appellate Tribunal for Electricity (statement 3). It was not India's first regulatory body (SEBI, TRAI and others came earlier), so statement 1 is incorrect. Hence 2 and 3.

    36. Question 36 · Geography · Physical Geography

      On 21st June, the Sun

      1. (a) does not set below the horizon at the Arctic Circle
      2. (b) does not set below the horizon at Antarctic Circle
      3. (c) shines vertically overhead at noon on the Equator
      4. (d) shines vertically overhead at the Tropic of Capricorn
      Answer and explanation

      Answer: (a) does not set below the horizon at the Arctic Circle

      On 21 June, the summer solstice of the northern hemisphere, the Sun is vertically overhead at the Tropic of Cancer and does not set at the Arctic Circle, which has 24 hours of daylight, while the Antarctic Circle has 24 hours of darkness.

    37. Question 37 · Environment and Ecology · Ecology Concepts

      In the context of which one of the following are the terms 'pyrolysis and plasma gasification' mentioned?

      1. (a) Extraction of rare earth elements
      2. (b) Natural gas extraction technologies
      3. (c) Hydrogen fuel-based automobiles
      4. (d) Waste-to-energy technologies
      Answer and explanation

      Answer: (d) Waste-to-energy technologies

      Pyrolysis (heating waste in the absence of oxygen) and plasma gasification (breaking down waste with a plasma torch into syngas) are thermochemical waste-to-energy technologies that convert municipal or plastic waste into fuel gas, oil and electricity.

    38. Question 38 · Economy · Economy

      The Services Area Approach was implemented under the purview of

      1. (a) Integrated Rural Development Programme
      2. (b) Lead Bank Scheme
      3. (c) Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Scheme
      4. (d) National Skill Development Mission
      Answer and explanation

      Answer: (b) Lead Bank Scheme

      The Service Area Approach (1989) was an extension of the Lead Bank Scheme: each rural and semi-urban bank branch was assigned a cluster of villages for which it prepared credit plans and was responsible for meeting their credit needs. It was later relaxed to allow borrowers to choose their bank.

    39. Question 39 · Geography · Resources and Industry

      With reference to the cultivation of Kharif crop in India in the last five years, consider the following statements:

      1. Area under rice cultivation is the highest.
      2. Area under the cultivation of jowar is more than that of oilseeds.
      3. Area of cotton cultivation is more than that of sugarcane.
      4. Area under sugarcane cultivation has steadily decreased.

      Which of the statements given above are correct?

      1. (a) 1 and 3 only
      2. (b) 2 , 3 and 4 only
      3. (c) 2 and 4 only
      4. (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
      Answer and explanation

      Answer: (a) 1 and 3 only

      Rice has the largest area among kharif crops (statement 1), and cotton's area (about 12 million hectares) exceeds sugarcane's (about 5 million) (statement 3). Oilseeds occupy more area than jowar (statement 2 incorrect), and sugarcane area has fluctuated rather than steadily decreased (statement 4 incorrect). Hence 1 and 3.

    40. Question 40 · Indian Society and Schemes · Society and Social Issues

      In the context of any country, which one of the following would be considered as part of its social capitals?

      1. (a) The proportion of literates in the population
      2. (b) The stock of its buildings, other infrastructure and machines
      3. (c) The size of population in the working age group
      4. (d) The level of mutual trust and harmony in the society
      Answer and explanation

      Answer: (d) The level of mutual trust and harmony in the society

      Social capital refers to the networks, norms and trust that enable people to cooperate; the level of mutual trust and harmony in a society is its social capital. Literacy and working-age population are human capital, and buildings and machines are physical capital.

    41. Question 41 · Environment and Ecology · Species in News

      Consider the following statements:

      1. Some species of turtles are herbivores.
      2. Some species of fish are herbivores.
      3. Some species of marine mammals are herbivores.
      4. Some species of snakes are viviparous.

      Which of the statements given above are correct?

      1. (a) 1 and 3 only
      2. (b) 2, 3 and 4 only
      3. (c) 2 and 4 only
      4. (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
      Answer and explanation

      Answer: (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

      Green sea turtles graze on seagrass, many fish such as parrotfish and grass carp are herbivores, manatees and dugongs are herbivorous marine mammals, and many snakes, including vipers and sea snakes, give birth to live young (viviparous). All four statements are correct.

    42. Question 42 · Science and Technology · Biology

      In the context of which of the following do some scientists suggest the use of cirrus cloud thinning technique and the injection of sulphate aerosols into the stratosphere?

      1. (a) Creating the artificial rains in some regions
      2. (b) Reducing the frequency and intensity of tropical cyclones
      3. (c) Reducing the adverse effects of solar wind on the Earth
      4. (d) Reducing global warming
      Answer and explanation

      Answer: (d) Reducing global warming

      Thinning cirrus clouds (which trap outgoing heat) and injecting sulphate aerosols into the stratosphere (which reflect sunlight, as volcanic eruptions do) are proposed geoengineering techniques for reducing global warming by altering the Earth's radiation balance.

    43. Question 43 · Art and Culture · Architecture

      Building 'Kalyaana Mandapas' was a notable feature in the temple construction in the kingdom of

      1. (a) Chalukya
      2. (b) Chandela
      3. (c) Rashtrakuta
      4. (d) Vijayanagara
      Answer and explanation

      Answer: (d) Vijayanagara

      The kalyana mandapa, a pillared hall for the ceremonial marriage of the deity and consort, is a distinctive feature of Vijayanagara temple architecture, seen at Hampi (Vitthala temple), Vellore and Kanchipuram, along with tall gopurams and ornate pillars.

    44. Question 44 · Geography · Physical Geography

      Why are dewdrops not formed on a cloudy night?

      1. (a) Clouds absorb the radiation released from the Earth's surface.
      2. (b) Clouds reflect back the Earth's radiation.
      3. (c) The Earth's surface would have low temperature on cloudy nights.
      4. (d) Clouds deflect the blowing wind to ground level.
      Answer and explanation

      Answer: (b) Clouds reflect back the Earth's radiation.

      Dew forms when the ground cools by radiating heat to a clear night sky until air near the surface reaches its dew point. On a cloudy night the clouds absorb and radiate back the Earth's long-wave radiation, keeping the surface warm, so the temperature does not fall enough for dew to form.

    45. Question 45 · Indian Polity and Governance · Parliament

      Consider the following statements:

      1. The Parliament (Prevention of Disqualification) Act, 1959 exempts several posts from disqualification on the grounds of 'Office of Profit'.
      2. The above-mentioned Act was amended five times.
      3. The term 'Office of Profit' is well-defined in the Constitution of India.

      Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

      1. (a) 1 and 2 only
      2. (b) 3 only
      3. (c) 2 and 3 only
      4. (d) 1, 2 and 3
      Answer and explanation

      Answer: (a) 1 and 2 only

      The Parliament (Prevention of Disqualification) Act, 1959 lists offices whose holders are exempt from disqualification for holding an office of profit (statement 1), and it has been amended five times, most recently in 2006 (statement 2). The Constitution does not define 'office of profit'; the tests were evolved by the courts (statement 3 incorrect). Hence 1 and 2.

    46. Question 46 · Economy · Money and Banking

      The Global Competitiveness Report is published by the

      1. (a) International Monetary Fund
      2. (b) United Nations Conference on Trade and Development
      3. (c) World Economic Forum
      4. (d) World Bank
      Answer and explanation

      Answer: (c) World Economic Forum

      The Global Competitiveness Report, which ranks countries on the productivity-related institutions, policies and factors of their economies, is published annually by the World Economic Forum, Geneva.

    47. Question 47 · Indian Polity and Governance · Constitution and Preamble

      Which Article of the Constitution of India safeguards one's right to marry the person of one's choice?

      1. (a) Article 19
      2. (b) Article 21
      3. (c) Article 25
      4. (d) Article 29
      Answer and explanation

      Answer: (b) Article 21

      In Shafin Jahan v. Asokan K.M. (the Hadiya case, 2018) and Shakti Vahini v. Union of India (2018) the Supreme Court held that the right to marry a person of one's choice is an integral part of the right to life and personal liberty under Article 21.

    48. Question 48 · International Relations · International Relations

      With reference to Asian Infrastructure Investment Bank (AIIB), consider the following statements :

      1. AIIB has more than 80 member nations.
      2. India is the largest shareholder in AIIB.
      3. AIIB does not have any members from outside Asia.

      Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

      1. (a) 1 only
      2. (b) 2 and 3 only
      3. (c) 1 and 3 only
      4. (d) 1, 2 and 3
      Answer and explanation

      Answer: (a) 1 only

      The AIIB had more than 80 members by 2019 (over 100 now), so statement 1 is correct. China is the largest shareholder with India second, so statement 2 is incorrect, and the bank has many non-Asian members such as the UK, Germany and Canada, so statement 3 is incorrect. Hence 1 only.

    49. Question 49 · Environment and Ecology · Ecology Concepts

      In India, the use of carbofuran, methyl parathion, phorate and triazophos is viewed with apprehension. These chemicals are used as

      1. (a) pesticides in agriculture
      2. (b) preservatives in processed foods
      3. (c) fruit-ripening agents
      4. (d) moisturising agents in cosmetics
      Answer and explanation

      Answer: (a) pesticides in agriculture

      Carbofuran, methyl parathion, phorate and triazophos are highly toxic organophosphate and carbamate insecticides used in agriculture; they have been linked to farmer poisonings and bird deaths, and expert committees have recommended banning several of them.

    50. Question 50 · Environment and Ecology · Climate Change

      Which of the following statements are correct about the deposits of 'methane hydrate'?

      1. Global warming might trigger the release of methane gas from these deposits.
      2. Large deposits of 'methane hydrate' are found in Arctic Tundra and under the seafloor.
      3. Methane in atmosphere oxidizes to carbon dioxide after a decade or two.

      Select the correct answer using the code given below:

      1. (a) 1 and 2 only
      2. (b) 2 and 3 only
      3. (c) 1 and 3 only
      4. (d) 1, 2 and 3
      Answer and explanation

      Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3

      Methane hydrate, an ice-like solid in which methane is trapped in water molecules, occurs in large quantities in Arctic permafrost and under the seafloor on continental margins (statement 2). Warming could destabilise it and release methane (statement 1), and methane in the atmosphere is oxidised to carbon dioxide within a decade or two (statement 3). All three are correct.

    51. Question 51 · Science and Technology · Biotechnology

      Which of the following are the reasons for the occurrence of multi-drug resistance in microbial pathogens in India?

      1. Genetic predisposition of some people
      2. Taking incorrect doses of antibiotics to cure diseases
      3. Using antibiotics in livestock farming
      4. Multiple chronic diseases in some people

      Select the correct answer using the code given below:

      1. (a) 1 and 2
      2. (b) 2 and 3 only
      3. (c) 1, 3 and 4
      4. (d) 2, 3 and 4
      Answer and explanation

      Answer: (b) 2 and 3 only

      Multi-drug resistance arises when microbes are exposed to antibiotics without being killed: incomplete or incorrect doses taken by patients and the routine use of antibiotics as growth promoters in livestock both select for resistant strains. Genetic predisposition and chronic diseases in people do not make bacteria resistant. Hence 2 and 3.

    52. Question 52 · Science and Technology · Biotechnology

      'RNA interference (RNAi)' technology has gained popularity in the last few years. Why?

      1. It is used in developing gene silencing therapies.
      2. It can be used in developing therapies for the treatment of cancer.
      3. It can be used to develop hormone replacement therapies.
      4. It can be used to produce crop plants that are resistant to viral pathogens.

      Select the correct answer using the code given below:

      1. (a) 1, 2 and 4
      2. (b) 2 and 3
      3. (c) 1 and 3
      4. (d) 1 and 4 only
      Answer and explanation

      Answer: (a) 1, 2 and 4

      RNA interference uses small RNA molecules to silence specific genes. It is used to develop gene-silencing therapies, including drugs against cancer and genetic disorders, and to produce crops resistant to viral pathogens by silencing viral genes. It is not a hormone replacement technology. Hence 1, 2 and 4.

    53. Question 53 · Economy · Fiscal Policy and Budget

      Consider the following statements:

      1. Most of India's external debt is owed by governmental entities.
      2. All of India's external debt is denominated in US dollars.

      Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

      1. (a) 1 only
      2. (b) 2 only
      3. (c) Both 1 and 2
      4. (d) Neither 1 nor 2
      Answer and explanation

      Answer: (d) Neither 1 nor 2

      Most of India's external debt is commercial borrowing, NRI deposits and trade credit owed by private companies and banks, not by the government, so statement 1 is incorrect. The debt is denominated in several currencies, including rupees, SDRs, yen and euros as well as US dollars, so statement 2 is incorrect. Hence neither.

    54. Question 54 · Science and Technology · Space

      For the measurement/estimation of which of the following are satellite images/remote sensing data used?

      1. Chlorophyll content in the vegetation of a specific location
      2. Greenhouse gas emissions from rice paddies of a specific location
      3. Land surface temperatures of a specific location

      Select the correct answer using the code given below.

      1. (a) 1 only
      2. (b) 2 and 3 only
      3. (c) 3 only
      4. (d) 1, 2 and 3
      Answer and explanation

      Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3

      Satellite remote sensing measures the chlorophyll content of vegetation through vegetation indices such as NDVI, estimates methane emissions from paddy fields using sensors on satellites such as GOSAT and Sentinel-5P, and records land-surface temperatures through thermal infrared bands. All three are measured by remote sensing.

    55. Question 55 · International Relations · International Relations

      Recently, India signed a deal known as 'Action Plan for Prioritization and Implementation of Cooperation Areas in the Nuclear Field' with which of the following countries?

      1. (a) Japan
      2. (b) Russia
      3. (c) The United Kingdom
      4. (d) The United States of America
      Answer and explanation

      Answer: (b) Russia

      India and Russia signed the 'Action Plan for Prioritisation and Implementation of Cooperation Areas in the Nuclear Field' in 2018 during President Putin's visit, covering joint construction of nuclear plants in third countries and further units at Kudankulam.

    56. Question 56 · Economy · Money and Banking

      Which one of the following is not the most likely measure the Government/RBI takes to stop the slide of Indian rupee?

      1. (a) Curbing imports of non-essential goods and promoting exports
      2. (b) Encouraging Indian borrowers to issue rupee denominated Masala Bonds
      3. (c) Easing conditions relating to external commercial borrowing
      4. (d) Following an expansionary monetary policy
      Answer and explanation

      Answer: (d) Following an expansionary monetary policy

      To check a falling rupee the government curbs non-essential imports and promotes exports, encourages masala bonds that bring in foreign money, and eases external commercial borrowing norms, all of which raise dollar inflows. An expansionary monetary policy would lower interest rates and weaken the rupee further, so it is not a measure taken to stop the slide.

    57. Question 57 · Economy · Poverty and Employment

      Consider the following statements : As per the Industrial Employment (Standing Orders) Central (Amendment) Rules, 2018

      1. if rules for fixed-term employment are implemented, it becomes easier for the firms/companies to lay off workers
      2. no notice of termination of employment shall be necessary in the case of temporary workman

      Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

      1. (a) 1 only
      2. (b) 2 only
      3. (c) Both 1 and 2
      4. (d) Neither 1 nor 2
      Answer and explanation

      Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

      The 2018 amendment to the Standing Orders Rules extended fixed-term employment to all sectors, letting firms hire workers for a fixed period after which employment ends without retrenchment formalities (statement 1), and it provides that no notice of termination is needed for temporary workmen (statement 2). Both statements are correct.

    58. Question 58 · Environment and Ecology · Ecology Concepts

      Why is there a great concern about the 'microbeads' that are released into the environment?

      1. (a) They are considered harmful to marine ecosystems.
      2. (b) They are considered to cause skin cancer in children.
      3. (c) They are small enough to be absorbed by crop plants in irrigated fields.
      4. (d) They are often found to be used as food adulterants.
      Answer and explanation

      Answer: (a) They are considered harmful to marine ecosystems.

      Microbeads, tiny plastic particles added to cosmetics and toothpaste, pass through sewage treatment into rivers and seas, where they are eaten by plankton, fish and shellfish, carry toxic chemicals up the food chain and harm marine ecosystems. Several countries have banned them for this reason.

    59. Question 59 · Indian Polity and Governance · Executive

      The Ninth Schedule was introduced in the Constitution of India during the prime ministership of

      1. (a) Jawaharlal Nehru
      2. (b) Lal Bahadur Shastri
      3. (c) Indira Gandhi
      4. (d) Morarji Desai
      Answer and explanation

      Answer: (a) Jawaharlal Nehru

      The Ninth Schedule was added by the First Amendment Act, 1951 during Jawaharlal Nehru's prime ministership to protect land-reform and other laws placed in it from challenge on the ground of violating fundamental rights.

    60. Question 60 · Science and Technology · Biology

      With reference to the recent developments in science, which one of the following statements is not correct?

      1. (a) Functional chromosomes can be created by joining segments of DNA taken from cells of different species.
      2. (b) Pieces of artificial functional DNA can be created in laboratories.
      3. (c) A piece of DNA taken out from an animal cell can be made to replicate outside a living cell in a laboratory.
      4. (d) Cells taken out from plants and animals can be made to undergo cell division in laboratory petri dishes.
      Answer and explanation

      Answer: (a) Functional chromosomes can be created by joining segments of DNA taken from cells of different species.

      Option (a) is incorrect: although synthetic chromosomes have been assembled and genes from different species can be transferred, functional chromosomes are not made by simply joining DNA segments taken from the cells of different species. Artificial DNA can be synthesised, DNA can be replicated outside cells by PCR, and plant and animal cells divide in culture dishes.

    61. Question 61 · Economy · External Sector

      Among the following, which one is the largest exporter of rice in the world in the last five years?

      1. (a) China
      2. (b) India
      3. (c) Myanmar
      4. (d) Vietnam
      Answer and explanation

      Answer: (b) India

      India has been the world's largest rice exporter since 2012, shipping over 10 million tonnes a year of basmati and non-basmati rice, ahead of Thailand and Vietnam. China is a net importer of rice and Myanmar a much smaller exporter.

    62. Question 62 · Modern Indian History · Freedom Struggle

      With reference to Indian National Movement, consider the following pairs:

      PersonPosition Held
      1. Sir Tej Bahadur SapruPresident, All India Liberal Federation
      2. K.C. NeogyMember of the Constituent Assembly
      3. P.C. JoshiGeneral Secretary, Communist Party of India

      Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?

      1. (a) 1 only
      2. (b) 1 and 2 only
      3. (c) 3 only
      4. (d) 1, 2 and 3
      Answer and explanation

      Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3

      Sir Tej Bahadur Sapru presided over the All India Liberal Federation, K.C. Neogy was a member of the Constituent Assembly (and later the first chairman of the Finance Commission), and P.C. Joshi was the first General Secretary of the Communist Party of India (1935-47). All three pairs are correct.

    63. Question 63 · Modern Indian History · Freedom Struggle

      Consider the following statements about 'the Charter Act of 1813':

      1. It ended the trade monopoly of the East India Company in India except for trade in tea and trade with China.
      2. It asserted the sovereignty of the British Crown over the Indian territories held by the Company.
      3. The revenues of India were now controlled by the British Parliament.

      Which of the statements given above are correct?

      1. (a) 1 and 2 only
      2. (b) 2 and 3 only
      3. (c) 1 and 3 only
      4. (d) 1, 2 and 3
      Answer and explanation

      Answer: (a) 1 and 2 only

      The Charter Act of 1813 ended the Company's trade monopoly in India except for tea and the China trade (statement 1) and asserted the sovereignty of the British Crown over the Company's Indian territories (statement 2). Control of Indian revenues by Parliament came later, with the Act of 1858; statement 3 is incorrect. Hence 1 and 2.

    64. Question 64 · Environment and Ecology · Biodiversity and Protected Areas

      Which one of the following National Parks lies completely in the temperate alpine zone?

      1. (a) Manas National Park
      2. (b) Namdapha National Park
      3. (c) Neora Valley National Park
      4. (d) Valley of Flowers National Park
      Answer and explanation

      Answer: (d) Valley of Flowers National Park

      The Valley of Flowers National Park in Uttarakhand lies entirely between about 3,200 and 6,700 metres in the temperate alpine zone of the western Himalaya, famous for its alpine meadows. Manas (Assam), Namdapha (Arunachal) and Neora Valley (West Bengal) extend into tropical and subtropical forest.

    65. Question 65 · Indian Polity and Governance · Federalism and Centre–State Relations

      Which one of the following suggested that the Governor should be an eminent person from outside the State and should be a detached figure without intense political links or should not have taken part in politics in the recent past?

      1. (a) First Administrative Reforms Commission 1966
      2. (b) Rajamannar Committee 1969
      3. (c) Sarkaria Commission 1983
      4. (d) National Commission to Review the Working of the Constitution 2000
      Answer and explanation

      Answer: (c) Sarkaria Commission 1983

      The Sarkaria Commission on Centre-State Relations (1983-88) recommended that the Governor should be an eminent person from outside the state, a detached figure without intense political links who has not taken part in politics in the recent past; the Punchhi Commission later endorsed this.

    66. Question 66 · Environment and Ecology · Climate Change

      Consider the following statements : The Environment Protection Act, 1986 empowers the Government of India to

      1. state the requirement of public participation in the process of environmental protection, and the procedure and manner in which it is sought
      2. lay down the standards for emission or discharge of environmental pollutants from various sources

      Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

      1. (a) 1 only
      2. (b) 2 only
      3. (c) Both 1 and 2
      4. (d) Neither 1 nor 2
      Answer and explanation

      Answer: (b) 2 only

      The Environment (Protection) Act, 1986 empowers the Central Government to lay down standards for the emission or discharge of pollutants from various sources (statement 2). It does not prescribe any requirement or procedure for public participation; that came through the EIA notifications under the Act (statement 1 incorrect). Hence 2 only.

    67. Question 67 · Art and Culture · Festivals and Crafts

      Who among the following Mughal Emperors shifted emphasis from illustrated manuscripts to album and individual portrait?

      1. (a) Humayun
      2. (b) Akbar
      3. (c) Jahangir
      4. (d) Shah Jahan
      Answer and explanation

      Answer: (c) Jahangir

      Under Jahangir the emphasis of Mughal painting moved from the illustrated manuscripts of Akbar's atelier to individual portraits, studies of birds and animals (by Mansur) and album (muraqqa) paintings, reflecting the emperor's interest in naturalism and connoisseurship.

    68. Question 68 · Environment and Ecology · Ecology Concepts

      Recently, there was a growing awareness in our country about the importance of Himalayan nettle (Girardinia diversifolia) because it is found to be a sustainable source of

      1. (a) anti-malarial drug
      2. (b) biodiesel
      3. (c) pulp for paper industry
      4. (d) textile fibre
      Answer and explanation

      Answer: (d) textile fibre

      The Himalayan nettle (Girardinia diversifolia), a wild plant of the Himalayan region, yields a long, strong bast fibre that is spun into yarn and woven into textiles by mountain communities; it is promoted as a sustainable, eco-friendly textile fibre.

    69. Question 69 · Modern Indian History · Freedom Struggle

      With reference to Swadeshi Movement, consider the following statements:

      1. It contributed to the revival of the indigenous artisan crafts and industries.
      2. The National Council of Education was established as a part of Swadeshi Movement.

      Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

      1. (a) 1 only
      2. (b) 2 only
      3. (c) Both 1 and 2
      4. (d) Neither 1 nor 2
      Answer and explanation

      Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

      The Swadeshi Movement (1905) revived indigenous crafts and industries, with new textile mills, soap and match factories and the handloom revival (statement 1), and the National Council of Education was founded in 1906 as part of the movement to promote national education (statement 2). Both are correct.

    70. Question 70 · Science and Technology · Biology

      The word 'Denisovan' is sometimes mentioned in the media in reference to -

      1. (a) fossils of a kind of dinosaurs
      2. (b) an early human species
      3. (c) a cave system found in North-East India
      4. (d) a geological period in the history of Indian subcontinent
      Answer and explanation

      Answer: (b) an early human species

      Denisovans are an extinct species or sub-species of archaic humans known from fossils in the Denisova Cave in Siberia and Tibet; they interbred with modern humans, and traces of their DNA survive in people of Asia and Oceania.

    71. Question 71 · Environment and Ecology · Climate Change

      Consider the following:

      1. Carbon monoxide
      2. Methane
      3. Ozone
      4. Sulphur dioxide

      Which of the above are released into the atmosphere due to the burning of crop/biomass residue?

      1. (a) 1 and 2 only
      2. (b) 2, 3 and 4 only
      3. (c) 1 and 4 only
      4. (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
      Answer and explanation

      Answer: (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

      Burning crop residue and biomass releases carbon monoxide and methane from incomplete combustion, sulphur dioxide from the sulphur in the biomass, and nitrogen oxides and hydrocarbons that react in sunlight to form ground-level ozone. All four are released.

    72. Question 72 · International Relations · International Relations

      Which of the following adopted a law on data protection and privacy for its citizens known as 'General Data Protection Regulation' in April 2016 and started implementation of it from 25th May, 2018?

      1. (a) Australia
      2. (b) Canada
      3. (c) The European Union
      4. (d) The United States of America
      Answer and explanation

      Answer: (c) The European Union

      The General Data Protection Regulation (GDPR) was adopted by the European Union in April 2016 and became applicable on 25 May 2018, giving EU residents rights over their personal data and imposing heavy penalties on violators.

    73. Question 73 · Ancient History · Ancient India

      Which one of the following is not a Harappan site?

      1. (a) Chanhudaro
      2. (b) Kot Diji
      3. (c) Sohgaura
      4. (d) Desalpur
      Answer and explanation

      Answer: (c) Sohgaura

      Sohgaura in Gorakhpur district of Uttar Pradesh is a Mauryan-period site known for its copper-plate inscription on famine relief; it is not a Harappan site. Chanhudaro and Kot Diji (Sindh) and Desalpur (Kachchh) are Harappan sites.

    74. Question 74 · Economy · Agriculture

      The economic cost of food grains to the Food Corporation of India is Minimum Support Price and bonus (if any) paid to the farmers plus

      1. (a) Transportation cost only
      2. (b) Interest cost only
      3. (c) Procurement incidentals and distribution cost
      4. (d) Procurement incidentals and charges for godowns
      Answer and explanation

      Answer: (c) Procurement incidentals and distribution cost

      The economic cost of foodgrains to the FCI is the sum of the MSP (plus any bonus) paid to farmers, the procurement incidentals (mandi charges, labour, transport to depots, bagging) and the distribution cost (storage, interest, transport to states and handling losses).

    75. Question 75 · Indian Polity and Governance · Parliament

      With reference to the Legislative Assembly of a State in India, consider the following statements:

      1. The governor makes a customary address to members of the house at the commencement of the first session of the year.
      2. When a State Legislature does not have a rule on a particular matter, it follows the Lok Sabha rule on that matter.

      Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

      1. (a) 1 only
      2. (b) 2 only
      3. (c) Both 1 and 2
      4. (d) Neither 1 nor 2
      Answer and explanation

      Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

      Article 176 requires the Governor to address the Legislative Assembly at the start of the first session each year (statement 1). Where a state legislature's rules are silent on a matter, the rules and practice of the Lok Sabha are followed (statement 2). Both are correct.

    76. Question 76 · Modern Indian History · Freedom Struggle

      Consider the following pairs:

      Movement/OrganizationLeader
      1. All India Anti-Untouchability LeagueMahatma Gandhi
      2. All India Kisan SabhaSwami Sahajanand Saraswati
      3. Self-Respect MovementE.V. Ramaswami Naicker

      Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?

      1. (a) 1 only
      2. (b) 1 and 2 only
      3. (c) 2 and 3 only
      4. (d) 1, 2 and 3
      Answer and explanation

      Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3

      Gandhi founded the All India Anti-Untouchability League in 1932 (later the Harijan Sevak Sangh), Swami Sahajanand Saraswati was the first president of the All India Kisan Sabha (1936), and E.V. Ramaswami Naicker (Periyar) started the Self-Respect Movement in 1925. All three pairs are correct.

    77. Question 77 · International Relations · Global Groupings

      Consider the following statements:

      1. The United Nations Convention against Corruption (UNCAC) has a 'Protocol against the Smuggling of Migrants by Land, Sea and Air'.
      2. The UNCAC is the ever-first legally binding global anti-corruption instrument.
      3. A highlight of the United Nations Convention against Transnational Organized Crime (UNTOC) is the inclusion of a specific chapter aimed at returning assets to their rightful owners from whom they had been taken illicitly.
      4. The United Nations Office on Drugs and Crime (UNODC) is mandated by its member States to assist in the implementation of both UNCAC and UNTOC.

      Which of the statements given above are correct?

      1. (a) 1 and 3 only
      2. (b) 2, 3 and 4 only
      3. (c) 2 and 4 only
      4. (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
      Answer and explanation

      Answer: (c) 2 and 4 only

      The UN Convention against Corruption (2003) is the first legally binding global anti-corruption instrument (statement 2), and UNODC is mandated to help states implement both UNCAC and the Convention against Transnational Organised Crime (statement 4). The Smuggling of Migrants Protocol belongs to UNTOC, not UNCAC (statement 1 incorrect), and the asset-recovery chapter is in UNCAC, not UNTOC (statement 3 incorrect). Hence 2 and 4.

    78. Question 78 · Economy · Money and Banking

      What was the purpose of Inter-Creditor Agreement signed by Indian banks and financial institutions recently?

      1. (a) To lessen the Government of India's perennial burden of fiscal deficit and current account deficit
      2. (b) To support the infrastructure Projects of Central and State Governments
      3. (c) To act as independent regulator in case of applications for loans of Rs. 50 crore or more
      4. (d) To aim at faster resolution of stressed assets of Rs. 50 crore or more which are under consortium lending
      Answer and explanation

      Answer: (d) To aim at faster resolution of stressed assets of Rs. 50 crore or more which are under consortium lending

      The Inter-Creditor Agreement signed by banks in 2018 under Project Sashakt (Sunil Mehta committee) provides a framework in which the lead lender and a majority of lenders can approve a resolution plan for stressed assets of Rs 50 crore and above under consortium or multiple lending, speeding up resolution.

    79. Question 79 · Economy · Infrastructure

      Which of the following is issued by registered foreign portfolio investors to overseas investors who want to be part of the Indian stock market without registering themselves directly?

      1. (a) Certificate of Deposit
      2. (b) Commercial Paper
      3. (c) Promissory Note
      4. (d) Participatory Note
      Answer and explanation

      Answer: (d) Participatory Note

      Participatory notes are offshore derivative instruments issued by SEBI-registered foreign portfolio investors to overseas investors who wish to invest in Indian securities without registering with SEBI; they have been criticised for the anonymity they afford.

    80. Question 80 · Economy · Money and Banking

      The Chairman of public sector banks are selected by the

      1. (a) Banks Board Bureau
      2. (b) Reserve Bank of India
      3. (c) Union Ministry of Finance
      4. (d) Management of concerned bank
      Answer and explanation

      Answer: (a) Banks Board Bureau

      At the time, chairmen and managing directors of public-sector banks were selected by the Banks Board Bureau, set up in 2016 on the recommendation of the P.J. Nayak committee; it was replaced in 2022 by the Financial Services Institutions Bureau.

    81. Question 81 · Environment and Ecology · Biodiversity and Protected Areas

      Consider the following statements :

      1. Under the Ramsar Convention, it is mandatory on the part of the Government of India to protect and conserve all the wetlands in the territory of India.
      2. The Wetlands (Conservation and Management) Rules, 2010 were framed by the Government of India based on the recommendations of Ramsar Convention.
      3. The Wetlands (Conservation and Management) Rules, 2010 also encompass the drainage area or catchment regions of the wetlands as determined by the authority.

      Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

      1. (a) 1 and 2 only
      2. (b) 2 and 3 only
      3. (c) 3 only
      4. (d) 1, 2 and 3
      Answer and explanation

      Answer: (c) 3 only

      The Ramsar Convention requires parties to designate and conserve wetlands of international importance, not to protect all wetlands (statement 1 incorrect). The Wetlands Rules, 2010 were framed under the Environment (Protection) Act, not on Ramsar recommendations (statement 2 incorrect), but they did cover the drainage area or catchment of a wetland as determined by the authority (statement 3). Hence 3 only.

    82. Question 82 · Indian Polity and Governance · Judiciary

      With reference to the Constitution of India, consider the following statements:

      1. No High Court shall have the jurisdiction to declare any central law to be constitutionally invalid.
      2. An amendment to the Constitution of India cannot be called into question by the Supreme Court of India.

      Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

      1. (a) 1 only
      2. (b) 2 only
      3. (c) Both 1 and 2
      4. (d) None of the above
      Answer and explanation

      Answer: (d) None of the above

      High Courts can declare central laws unconstitutional under Article 226 (statement 1 incorrect), and the Supreme Court can review constitutional amendments on the touchstone of the basic structure, as settled in Kesavananda Bharati (statement 2 incorrect). Hence neither.

    83. Question 83 · Science and Technology · IT and Emerging Tech

      Consider the following statements: A digital signature is

      1. an electronic record that identifies the certifying authority issuing it
      2. used to serve as a proof of identity of an individual to access information or server on Internet
      3. an electronic method of signing an electronic document and ensuring that the original content is unchanged

      Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

      1. (a) 1 only
      2. (b) 2 and 3 only
      3. (c) 3 only
      4. (d) 1, 2 and 3
      Answer and explanation

      Answer: (c) 3 only

      A digital signature is an electronic method of signing a document that verifies the signer and ensures the content has not been altered (statement 3). It is not itself a record identifying the certifying authority (that is the digital signature certificate), nor a login credential for accessing servers. Hence 3 only.

    84. Question 84 · Economy · External Sector

      Consider the following statements:

      1. CoaI sector was nationalized by the Government of India under Indira Gandhi.
      2. Now, coal blocks are allocated on a lottery basis.
      3. Till recently, India imported coal to meet the shortage of domestic supply, but now India is self- sufficient in coal production.

      Which of the statements given above is/arc correct?

      1. (a) 1 only
      2. (b) 2 and 3 only
      3. (c) 3 only
      4. (d) 1, 2 and 3
      Answer and explanation

      Answer: (a) 1 only

      Coal mining was nationalised in 1971-73 under Indira Gandhi's government (statement 1). Coal blocks are now allocated by auction, not lottery (statement 2 incorrect), and India still imports coal, both coking coal and thermal coal, to meet demand (statement 3 incorrect). Hence 1 only.

    85. Question 85 · Art and Culture · Sculpture and Painting

      In which of the following relief sculpture inscriptions is 'Ranyo Ashoka' (King Ashoka) mentioned along with the stone portrait of Ashoka?

      1. (a) Kanganahalli
      2. (b) Sanchi
      3. (c) Shahbazgarhi
      4. (d) Sohgaura
      Answer and explanation

      Answer: (a) Kanganahalli

      At Kanaganahalli near Sannati in Karnataka, excavations of a Satavahana-period stupa revealed a relief sculpture of a king with the inscription 'Ranyo Asoko' (King Ashoka), the only known portrait of Ashoka with his name.

    86. Question 86 · Economy · Money and Banking

      Consider the following statements: The Reserve Bank of India's recent directives relating to 'Storage of Payment System Data', popularly known as data diktat, command the payment system providers that

      1. they shall ensure that entire data relating to payment systems operated by them are stored in a system only in India
      2. they shall ensure that the systems are owned and operated by public sector enterprises
      3. they shall submit the consolidated system audit report to the Comptroller and Auditor General of India by the end of the calendar year

      Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

      1. (a) 1 only
      2. (b) 1 and 2 only
      3. (c) 3 only
      4. (d) 1, 2 and 3
      Answer and explanation

      Answer: (a) 1 only

      The RBI's 2018 directive on storage of payment system data requires all payment system providers to store the entire data relating to payment systems operated by them only in India (statement 1). It does not require the systems to be owned by public-sector enterprises, and the system audit report goes to the RBI, not the CAG. Hence 1 only.

    87. Question 87 · Art and Culture · Literature and Philosophy

      Consider the following:

      1. Deification of the Buddha
      2. Treading the path of Bodhisattvas
      3. Image worship and rituals

      Which of the above is/are the feature/features of Mahayana Buddhism?

      1. (a) 1 only
      2. (b) 1 and 2 only
      3. (c) 2 and 3 only
      4. (d) 1, 2 and 3
      Answer and explanation

      Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3

      Mahayana Buddhism, which emerged around the first century AD, deified the Buddha as a transcendent being, held up the bodhisattva path of compassion for all as the ideal, and adopted image worship and elaborate rituals, unlike the earlier Theravada. All three are features of Mahayana.

    88. Question 88 · Geography · Indian Physiography and Drainage

      Consider the following pairs :

      GlacierRiver
      1. BandarpunchYamuna
      2. Bara ShigriChenab
      3. MilamMandakini
      4. SiachenNubra
      5. ZemuManas

      Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

      1. (a) 1, 2 and 4
      2. (b) 1, 3 and 4
      3. (c) 2 and 5
      4. (d) 3 and 5
      Answer and explanation

      Answer: (a) 1, 2 and 4

      The Yamuna rises from the Bandarpunch glacier (Yamunotri), the Bara Shigri glacier in Lahaul feeds the Chenab, and the Siachen glacier feeds the Nubra; pairs 1, 2 and 4 are correct. The Milam glacier feeds the Goriganga, not the Mandakini, and the Zemu glacier in Sikkim feeds the Teesta, not the Manas. Hence 1, 2 and 4.

    89. Question 89 · Economy · Money and Banking

      Which of the following is not included in the assets of a commercial bank in India?

      1. (a) Advances
      2. (b) Deposits
      3. (c) Investments
      4. (d) Money at call and short notice
      Answer and explanation

      Answer: (b) Deposits

      A bank's assets are what it owns or is owed: loans and advances, investments in securities, cash and money at call and short notice. Deposits are money the bank owes to its customers and appear on the liabilities side of its balance sheet.

    90. Question 90 · Indian Society and Schemes · Society and Social Issues

      Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the Maternity Benefit (Amendment) Act, 2017?

      1. Pregnant women are entitled for three months pre-delivery and three months post-delivery paid leave.
      2. Enterprises with crèches must allow the mother minimum six crèche visits daily.
      3. Women with two children get reduced entitlements.

      Select the correct answer using the code given below:

      1. (a) 1 and 2 only
      2. (b) 2 only
      3. (c) 3 only
      4. (d) 1, 2 and 3
      Answer and explanation

      Answer: (c) 3 only

      The Maternity Benefit (Amendment) Act, 2017 raised paid maternity leave to 26 weeks for the first two children, but only 12 weeks for a woman with two or more children (statement 3). The leave is not split as three months before and three after delivery, and establishments with creches must allow four visits a day, not six. Hence 3 only.

    91. Question 91 · Science and Technology · Biology

      In the context of wearable technology, which of the following tasks is/are accomplished by wearable devices?

      1. Location identification of a person
      2. Sleep monitoring of a person
      3. Assisting the hearing impaired person

      Select the correct answer using the code given below:

      1. (a) 1 only
      2. (b) 2 and 3 only
      3. (c) 3 only
      4. (d) 1, 2 and 3
      Answer and explanation

      Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3

      Wearable devices such as smartwatches, fitness bands and hearing aids use GPS to identify a person's location, sensors to monitor sleep, and amplification and connectivity to assist the hearing impaired. All three tasks are accomplished by wearables.

    92. Question 92 · Indian Polity and Governance · Constitution and Preamble

      In the context of polity, which one of the following would you accept as the most appropriate definition of liberty?

      1. (a) Protection against the tyranny of political rulers
      2. (b) Absence of restraint
      3. (c) Opportunity to do whatever one likes
      4. (d) Opportunity to develop oneself fully
      Answer and explanation

      Answer: (d) Opportunity to develop oneself fully

      In political theory liberty is understood positively as the opportunity for each person to develop his or her personality fully, within a framework of reasonable restraints, rather than as mere absence of restraint or freedom to do anything one likes.

    93. Question 93 · Economy · Money and Banking

      In the context of India, which of the following factors is/are contributor/contributors to reducing the risk of a currency crisis?

      1. The foreign currency earnings of India's IT sector
      2. Increasing the government expenditure
      3. Remittances from Indians abroad

      Select the correct answer using the code given below.

      1. (a) 1 only
      2. (b) 1 and 3 only
      3. (c) 2 only
      4. (d) 1, 2 and 3
      Answer and explanation

      Answer: (b) 1 and 3 only

      Foreign-currency earnings of the IT sector and remittances from Indians abroad are steady inflows that build reserves and cushion the current account, reducing the risk of a currency crisis. Higher government expenditure widens the fiscal deficit and tends to weaken the currency. Hence 1 and 3.

    94. Question 94 · Medieval History · Medieval India

      With reference to Mughal India, what is/are the difference/differences between Jagirdar and Zamindar?

      1. Jagirdars were holders of land assignments in lieu of judicial and police duties, whereas Zamindars were holders of revenue rights without obligation to perform any duty other than revenue collection.
      2. Land assignments to Jagirdars were hereditary and revenue rights of Zamindars were not hereditary.

      Select the correct answer using the code given below:

      1. (a) 1 only
      2. (b) 2 only
      3. (c) Both 1 and 2
      4. (d) Neither 1 nor 2
      Answer and explanation

      Answer: (d) Neither 1 nor 2

      Jagirdars were mansabdars given revenue assignments (jagirs) in lieu of salary, with no judicial or police duties attached to the jagir itself, and jagirs were transferable, not hereditary, whereas zamindari rights were usually hereditary. Both statements are therefore incorrect.

    95. Question 95 · Indian Society and Schemes · Society and Social Issues

      Consider the following statements about Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups (PVTGs) in India :

      1. PVTGs reside in 18 States and one Union Territory.
      2. A stagnant or declining population is one of the criteria for determining PVTG status.
      3. There are 95 PVTGs officially notified in the country so far.
      4. Irular and Konda Reddi Tribes are included in the list of PVTGs.

      Which of the statements given above are correct?

      1. (a) 1, 2 and 3
      2. (b) 2, 3 and 4
      3. (c) 1, 2 and 4
      4. (d) 1, 3 and 4
      Answer and explanation

      Answer: (c) 1, 2 and 4

      PVTGs live in 18 states and one union territory (Andaman and Nicobar), a stagnant or declining population is one of the criteria for the status, and the Irulas of Tamil Nadu and Konda Reddis of Andhra Pradesh are PVTGs; so statements 1, 2 and 4 are correct. There are 75 PVTGs, not 95, so statement 3 is incorrect. Hence 1, 2 and 4.

    96. Question 96 · Science and Technology · Biology

      Atal Innovation Mission is set up under the

      1. (a) Department of Science and Technology
      2. (b) Ministry of Labour and Employment
      3. (c) NITI Aayog
      4. (d) Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship
      Answer and explanation

      Answer: (c) NITI Aayog

      The Atal Innovation Mission was set up in 2016 under NITI Aayog to promote innovation and entrepreneurship through Atal Tinkering Labs in schools, Atal Incubation Centres and the Atal New India Challenges.

    97. Question 97 · Economy · Money and Banking

      Which one of the following is not a sub-index of the World Bank's "Ease of Doing Business Index"?

      1. (a) Maintenance of law and order
      2. (b) Paying taxes
      3. (c) Registering property
      4. (d) Dealing with construction permits
      Answer and explanation

      Answer: (a) Maintenance of law and order

      The World Bank's Ease of Doing Business index (discontinued in 2021) had ten sub-indices: starting a business, dealing with construction permits, getting electricity, registering property, getting credit, protecting minority investors, paying taxes, trading across borders, enforcing contracts and resolving insolvency. Maintenance of law and order was not one of them.

    98. Question 98 · Geography · Physical Geography

      What is common to the places known as Aliyar, Isa pur and Kangsabati?

      1. (a) Recently discovered uranium deposits
      2. (b) Tropical rain forests
      3. (c) Underground cave systems
      4. (d) Water reservoirs
      Answer and explanation

      Answer: (d) Water reservoirs

      Aliyar (Tamil Nadu), Isapur (Maharashtra) and Kangsabati (West Bengal) are all dams and reservoirs built for irrigation and water supply.

    99. Question 99 · Environment and Ecology · Species in News

      Consider the following pairs:

      WildlifeNaturally found in
      1. Blue-finned MahseerCauvery River
      2. Irrawaddy DolphinChambal River
      3. Rusty-spotted CatEastern Ghats

      Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

      1. (a) 1 and 2 only
      2. (b) 2 and 3 only
      3. (c) 1 and 3 only
      4. (d) 1, 2 and 3
      Answer and explanation

      Answer: (c) 1 and 3 only

      The blue-finned (Deccan) mahseer is native to the Cauvery river and the rusty-spotted cat, the world's smallest wild cat, is found in the Eastern Ghats and other parts of India, so pairs 1 and 3 are correct. The Irrawaddy dolphin lives in Chilika lake and coastal waters, not the Chambal, where the Gangetic dolphin is found. Hence 1 and 3.

    100. Question 100 · Environment and Ecology · Ecology Concepts

      Consider the following statements

      1. Asiatic lion is naturally found in India only.
      2. Double-humped camel is naturally found in India only.
      3. One-horned rhinoceros is naturally found in India only.

      Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

      1. (a) 1 only
      2. (b) 2 only
      3. (c) 1 and 3 only
      4. (d) 1, 2 and 3
      Answer and explanation

      Answer: (a) 1 only

      The Asiatic lion survives in the wild only in Gir, Gujarat, so statement 1 is correct. The double-humped Bactrian camel of Ladakh is also found in Mongolia and China, and the one-horned rhinoceros lives in Nepal as well as India, so statements 2 and 3 are incorrect. Hence 1 only.